Cardiomyocyte structure: energy demand and conduction control.
Cardiovascular Part 1: The Heart's Infrastructure
Built with the Cell-Factory Method for NCLEX-PN Mastery
🧡 What You Will Master:
✔️ Heart anatomy using the Cell Factory method — three layers, four chambers, four valves, and coronary supply lines.
✔️ The Cardiomyocyte Factory — how heart muscle cells contract using calcium, sodium, and potassium gates.
✔️ The Electrical Control Tower — SA Node, AV Node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers, and ECG basics.
✔️ Dysrhythmias — what happens when the electrical system malfunctions, including life-threatening rhythms.
✔️ Antidysrhythmic Medications — four drug classes mapped to specific ion channel receptors on heart cells.
✔️ Management — cardioversion, defibrillation, pacemakers, CPR guidelines, and LPN responsibilities.
✔️ NGN Clinical Judgment — Recognize Cues, Analyze Cues, and NCLEX-PN test-taking strategies.
💜 LPN Scope Reminder: LPNs COLLECT DATA and REPORT. RNs ASSESS and DIAGNOSE.
Meet the building, the rooms, the doors, and the supply lines
🏭 Welcome to the Heart Factory!
Think of your heart as a sophisticated factory complex. It is located in the left side of the mediastinum, which is the center area of your chest. This factory never takes a break. It beats about 100,000 times every day, pumping blood to every cell in your body. Let us explore how this factory is built!
Every factory needs: walls for protection, rooms for different jobs, doors to control flow, supply lines for fuel, and an electrical system to keep everything running on time. Your heart has ALL of these!
🧱 The Factory Walls: Three Protective Layers
Just like a factory has outer walls, insulation, and interior walls, your heart has three layers. From outside to inside:
Epicardium (Outer Wall) — The outermost layer of the heart. Think of this as the factory's exterior brick wall. It protects the heart from the outside.
Myocardium (Middle Layer — THE MUSCLE!) — This is the middle layer and the actual contracting muscle of the heart. This is where the REAL WORK happens! The cardiomyocyte factory workers live here. This is the thickest layer because it does the pumping.
Endocardium (Inner Lining) — The innermost layer that lines the inner chambers and heart valves. Think of this as the smooth tile floor inside the factory rooms that allows blood to flow without sticking.
🏭 Seeing the Factory Walls: A Cross-Section View
Imagine cutting the heart wall in half and looking at the slice under a magnifying glass. You would see three distinct layers, each with a different thickness and function. The outermost layer, the epicardium, is thin and smooth, serving as the protective exterior wall. The middle layer, the myocardium, is by far the thickest because this is where millions of cardiomyocyte factory workers live and contract to pump blood. When a heart attack (myocardial infarction) occurs, it is these myocardial cells that are damaged and die from oxygen starvation. The innermost layer, the endocardium, is a thin, smooth membrane that lines the chambers and prevents blood from sticking to the walls, much like smooth tile flooring in a factory prevents materials from catching and creating jams.
Surrounding all three layers is the pericardial sac, a tough protective bag that encases the entire heart. Between the inner and outer layers of this sac is a thin space containing 5 to 20 mL of lubricating fluid. If this space fills with excess fluid or blood (a condition called cardiac tamponade), it can compress the heart and prevent it from filling properly, which is a life-threatening emergency.
🧱 Heart Wall Layers: Cross-Section View
Three layers from outside to inside: Epicardium (thin outer wall), Myocardium (thick muscle where contraction happens), Endocardium (thin smooth inner lining). The pericardial sac wraps around everything with 5-20 mL of lubricating fluid.
📦 The Factory's Security Fence: Pericardial Sac
The entire heart factory is wrapped in a protective bag called the pericardial sac. This sac encases and protects the heart from trauma and infection.
The pericardial sac has two layers:
Parietal pericardium: The tough, fibrous outer membrane. It attaches anteriorly to the lower half of the sternum, posteriorly to the thoracic vertebrae, and inferiorly to the diaphragm. Think of it as the chain-link fence around the factory.
Visceral pericardium: The thin, inner layer that closely adheres to the heart. This is the same as the epicardium!
Between these two layers is the pericardial space, which holds 5 to 20 mL of pericardial fluid. This fluid lubricates the pericardial surfaces and cushions the heart, like oil between two moving machine parts.
🫁 The Heart Factory: Four Production Rooms (Chambers)
The heart has four rooms (chambers) separated by one-way doors (valves). Right side handles USED blood; Left side handles FRESH oxygenated blood.
🚪 The One-Way Doors: Four Heart Valves
Valves are like one-way doors that prevent blood from flowing backward. There are four valves in two groups:
Atrioventricular (AV) Valves — Between Atria and Ventricles:
Tricuspid Valve — RIGHT side of heart (between right atrium and right ventricle). Has three leaflets. Close at the beginning of ventricular contraction to prevent blood from flowing back into the atria.
Bicuspid (Mitral) Valve — LEFT side of heart (between left atrium and left ventricle). Has two leaflets. Same job: prevents backflow when ventricles squeeze.
Semilunar Valves — Between Ventricles and Great Vessels:
Pulmonic Semilunar Valve — Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery. Opens when right ventricle contracts to send blood to lungs.
Aortic Semilunar Valve — Between left ventricle and aorta. Opens when left ventricle contracts to send blood to the body.
Semilunar valves prevent blood from flowing back into the ventricles during relaxation.
🚪 Quick Reference: The Four Heart Valves (One-Way Doors)
Valve
Type
Location
Key Facts
Sound When Closing
Tricuspid
AV valve (3 leaflets)
• RIGHT atrium → RIGHT ventricle • Right side of heart
• TRI = Right (R-I sound) • Has 3 cusps (leaflets)
• Contributes to S1 (LUB)
Pulmonic
Semilunar valve
• RIGHT ventricle → Pulmonary artery • Guards exit to lungs
• Prevents backflow into RV • Opens during systole
• Contributes to S2 (DUB)
Mitral (Bicuspid)
AV valve (2 leaflets)
• LEFT atrium → LEFT ventricle • Left side of heart
• Only valve with 2 cusps • Most commonly affected by rheumatic fever
• Contributes to S1 (LUB)
Aortic
Semilunar valve
• LEFT ventricle → Aorta • Guards exit to body
• Prevents backflow into LV • Coronary arteries branch just above
• Contributes to S2 (DUB)
💡 Memory: "Try Pulling My Aorta" = Tricuspid → Pulmonic → Mitral → Aortic (order of blood flow) | AV valves = S1 | Semilunar valves = S2
🔄 Following the Blood: The Complete Circuit Through the Heart Factory
Understanding how blood flows through the heart is one of the most frequently tested concepts on NCLEX. Think of the blood flow as a figure-eight delivery route through the factory. Used, deoxygenated blood (dark blue, low in oxygen) returns from the body through the superior vena cava (from the upper body) and the inferior vena cava (from the lower body) into the right atrium. This is like the factory’s loading dock receiving raw materials.
From the right atrium, blood passes through the tricuspid valve (a one-way door with 3 leaflets) into the right ventricle. The right ventricle then pumps blood through the pulmonic semilunar valve into the pulmonary artery heading to the lungs. Here is the tricky part that NCLEX loves to test: the pulmonary artery is the ONLY artery in the body that carries deoxygenated blood! Normally arteries carry oxygenated blood, but this one carries used blood TO the lungs for a fresh oxygen supply.
In the lungs, carbon dioxide is dropped off and fresh oxygen is picked up (gas exchange). The now oxygenated blood (bright red) returns to the heart via four pulmonary veins into the left atrium. Again, tricky: the pulmonary veins are the ONLY veins that carry oxygenated blood! From the left atrium, blood passes through the mitral (bicuspid) valve into the left ventricle, the largest and most muscular chamber. The left ventricle then pumps with tremendous force through the aortic semilunar valve into the aorta, which distributes oxygenated blood to every cell in the body. The cycle begins again.
🔄 Complete Blood Flow Pathway Through the Heart
Follow the blood: Body → SVC/IVC → R. Atrium → Tricuspid → R. Ventricle → Pulmonic → Pulmonary Artery → LUNGS (gas exchange) → Pulmonary Veins → L. Atrium → Mitral → L. Ventricle → Aortic → Aorta → BODY. TRICKY: Pulmonary artery = deoxy blood! Pulmonary veins = oxy blood!
"Try Pulling My Aorta" = Tricuspid, Pulmonic, Mitral, Aortic — in order of blood flow from right side to left side!
Or remember: "Toilet Paper My A--" if that helps it stick! (We will not judge!)
🎵 Factory Sounds: S1, S2, S3, S4
When you place a stethoscope on a client’s chest, you are essentially listening to the factory doors slamming shut. Each heart sound is produced by the closure of specific valves. The two normal heart sounds are S1 and S2. S1, called the “LUB,” occurs when the two AV valves, the tricuspid and the mitral, snap closed at the very beginning of ventricular contraction. This sound is loudest at the apex of the heart, which is the bottom tip near the fifth intercostal space at the left midclavicular line. S2, called the “DUB,” occurs when the two semilunar valves, the pulmonic and the aortic, close at the end of ventricular contraction. S2 is loudest at the base of the heart, which is the top near the second intercostal space. Together, S1 and S2 create the familiar “LUB-DUB” rhythm. An easy way to remember the auscultation landmarks on the chest wall is “APE To Man,” which stands for Aortic, Pulmonic, Erb’s point, Tricuspid, and Mitral, moving from top to bottom and right to left on the patient’s chest.
Extra heart sounds are S3 and S4. An S3 gallop sounds like “Ken-TUCK-y” and is caused by rapid blood flow into a ventricle with decreased compliance. S3 may be normal in healthy individuals younger than 30 years, but in older adults it often indicates heart failure or valvular regurgitation. An S4 gallop sounds like “TEN-nes-see” and occurs when the atria contract against a stiff, resistant ventricle. S4 is ALWAYS abnormal and indicates cardiac hypertrophy, disease, or injury to the ventricular wall. If you auscultate an abnormal murmur, which sounds like a swooshing or blowing noise caused by turbulent blood flow through an abnormal valve, your LPN action is to REPORT this finding to the RN or PHCP immediately. Here is the quick reference for each sound:
S1 ("LUB") — Heard when the AV valves (tricuspid and mitral) close. Loudest at the APEX of the heart. This marks the START of ventricular contraction (systole).
S2 ("DUB") — Heard when the semilunar valves (pulmonic and aortic) close. Loudest at the BASE of the heart. This marks the END of ventricular contraction.
S3 (Extra Sound) — May indicate decreased ventricular wall compliance. Can occur in heart failure or valvular regurgitation. However, it may be NORMAL in individuals younger than 30 years!
S4 (Extra Sound) — Heard on atrial systole if resistance to ventricular filling is present. This is ALWAYS abnormal! Causes include cardiac hypertrophy, disease, or injury to the ventricular wall.
🎵 Quick Reference: Heart Sounds At-a-Glance
Sound
Cause
Where Loudest
Normal or Abnormal?
💡 Memory Trick
S1
• AV valves close • Tricuspid + Mitral snap shut
• APEX of heart • 5th ICS, left MCL
NORMAL • Marks START of systole
• "LUB" = doors closing, work begins!
S2
• Semilunar valves close • Pulmonic + Aortic snap shut
• BASE of heart • 2nd ICS
NORMAL • Marks END of systole
• "DUB" = exit doors closing, shift done!
S3
• Rapid blood filling into ventricle • Decreased ventricular compliance
• Apex • Best with bell of stethoscope
• Normal if < 30 years • Abnormal in older adults = HF
• "Ken-TUCK-y" • S3 = 3rd decade can be normal
S4
• Atria contract against stiff ventricle • Ventricular resistance to filling
• Apex • Best with bell of stethoscope
ALWAYS ABNORMAL! • Cardiac hypertrophy, disease, or injury
• "TEN-nes-see" • S4 = ALWAYS pathological!
💡 Auscultation Landmarks "APE To Man": Aortic (2nd R ICS) → Pulmonic (2nd L ICS) → Erb’s Point (3rd L ICS) → Tricuspid (4th L ICS) → Mitral (5th L ICS, MCL)
💥 The Supply Lines: Coronary Arteries
Every factory needs its own fuel supply lines, and the heart is no exception. The coronary arteries are the heart’s personal blood supply, delivering oxygen and nutrients directly to the cardiomyocyte factory workers in the myocardium. Even though the heart pumps blood to the entire body, it cannot use the blood that flows through its chambers. Instead, it depends entirely on the coronary arteries that branch off the aorta and wrap around the outside of the heart. If any of these supply lines become blocked, usually by a buildup of fatty plaque called atherosclerosis, the cardiomyocytes downstream are starved of oxygen. Within about 20 minutes of complete blockage, those cells begin to die. This is a myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack.
The two main coronary arteries are the right coronary artery and the left main coronary artery. The right coronary artery supplies the right side of the heart, the inferior portion of the left ventricle, and critically, the SA and AV nodes, which control heart rhythm. This means that a blockage of the right coronary artery often causes dysrhythmias like bradycardia or heart blocks. The left main coronary artery quickly splits into two major branches. The left anterior descending artery, often called the LAD or the “Widow Maker,” is the most dangerous vessel because it supplies the entire anterior wall of the left ventricle, the ventricular septum, and the apex. A blockage here can destroy a massive portion of the heart’s main pumping chamber. The circumflex artery wraps around the left side supplying the left atrium and the lateral and posterior walls of the left ventricle. Here is a quick reference for each artery:
Right Main Coronary Artery: Supplies the right atrium and ventricle, the inferior portion of the left ventricle, the posterior septal wall, and the SA and AV nodes.
Left Main Coronary Artery: Splits into two major branches:
Left Anterior Descending (LAD) Artery: Supplies the anterior wall of the left ventricle, the anterior ventricular septum, and the apex. Sometimes called the "Widow Maker" because blockage here is very dangerous!
Circumflex Artery: Supplies the left atrium and the lateral and posterior surfaces of the left ventricle.
💥 Coronary Artery Supply Lines
The coronary arteries are the heart's own fuel supply lines. The LAD is called the "Widow Maker" because blockage here is especially dangerous.
• Anterior wall of LV • Anterior ventricular septum • Apex of heart
• Large anterior MI • Very high mortality • Called "WIDOW MAKER"
• Most commonly blocked • Branch of left main coronary
Circumflex
• Left atrium • Lateral wall of LV • Posterior surface of LV
• Lateral wall MI • Possible dysrhythmias
• Branch of left main coronary • "Wraps around" the heart
Right Coronary Artery (RCA)
• Right atrium & ventricle • SA node (in ~60%) • AV node (in ~80%) • Inferior wall of LV
• Inferior MI • Bradycardia! (SA/AV node affected) • Heart blocks possible
• Supplies the electrical system • RCA blockage = rhythm problems
⚠ Coronary arteries fill during DIASTOLE (relaxation). Tachycardia shortens diastole → less coronary filling → more ischemia!
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Quiz 1A: Heart Structure (11 Questions)
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Question 1 of 11
The middle layer of the heart wall that is responsible for the actual contraction of the heart is the:
A. Epicardium
B. Myocardium
C. Endocardium
D. Pericardium
The myocardium is the middle layer and the actual contracting muscle of the heart. The epicardium is the outer layer, the endocardium is the inner lining, and the pericardium is the protective sac around the heart. NCLEX Tip: Remember EPI means on top, MYO means muscle, ENDO means inside.
Question 2 of 11
The pericardial space contains how much fluid that lubricates and cushions the heart?
A. 50 to 100 mL
B. 5 to 20 mL
C. 100 to 200 mL
D. 1 to 5 mL
The pericardial space holds 5 to 20 mL of pericardial fluid. This small amount lubricates the pericardial surfaces and cushions the heart. If this space fills with excess fluid, it can cause cardiac tamponade!
Question 3 of 11
Which heart chamber is the LARGEST and most muscular, responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the entire body?
A. Right atrium
B. Right ventricle
C. Left atrium
D. Left ventricle
The left ventricle is the largest and most muscular chamber. It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs via the left atrium and pumps blood into the systemic circulation via the aorta. It needs to be the strongest because it pumps blood the farthest distance in the body.
Question 4 of 11
The tricuspid valve is located between which two structures?
A. Left atrium and left ventricle
B. Right ventricle and pulmonary artery
C. Right atrium and right ventricle
D. Left ventricle and aorta
The tricuspid valve is on the RIGHT side of the heart, between the right atrium and right ventricle. Memory trick: TRI = right (both have an R-I sound). The mitral (bicuspid) valve is on the left side.
Question 5 of 11
S1 (the first heart sound) is produced by the closure of which valves?
A. Atrioventricular valves (tricuspid and mitral)
B. Semilunar valves (pulmonic and aortic)
C. Only the mitral valve
D. Only the aortic valve
S1 is heard as the AV valves (tricuspid and mitral) close and is heard loudest at the apex of the heart. S2 is heard when the semilunar valves close and is heard loudest at the base of the heart.
Question 6 of 11
Which coronary artery is sometimes called the Widow Maker because blockage is especially dangerous?
A. Right main coronary artery
B. Left anterior descending (LAD) artery
C. Circumflex artery
D. Posterior descending artery
The LAD supplies the anterior wall of the left ventricle, the anterior ventricular septum, and the apex. Blockage here affects a large area of the most important pumping chamber. The LAD is a branch of the left main coronary artery.
Question 7 of 11
The right main coronary artery supplies blood to the SA and AV nodes. What does this mean if the right coronary artery becomes blocked?
A. Only the left ventricle will be affected
B. The heart's electrical system could malfunction causing dysrhythmias
C. Blood pressure will increase dramatically
D. The lungs will not receive any blood
Because the right coronary artery supplies the SA and AV nodes, blockage can disrupt the electrical conduction system, causing dysrhythmias and heart blocks. This is an example of RECOGNIZING CUES: an inferior MI (supplied by right coronary) can cause bradycardia and heart block. This is a critical connection for NCLEX!
Question 8 of 11
An S4 heart sound heard during auscultation is:
A. Normal in all adults
B. Always an abnormal finding indicating cardiac hypertrophy, disease, or injury
C. Normal in individuals younger than 30
D. The sound of the pulmonic valve closing
An S4 heart sound is ALWAYS abnormal. It is heard on atrial systole if resistance to ventricular filling is present. Causes include cardiac hypertrophy, disease, or injury to the ventricular wall. An S3 may be normal in young adults under 30, but S4 is always abnormal. LPN action: REPORT this finding to the RN!
Question 9 of 11
The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs via:
A. The superior vena cava
B. The inferior vena cava
C. Four pulmonary veins
D. The pulmonary artery
The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs via four pulmonary veins. Tricky point: the pulmonary veins carry OXYGENATED blood (unlike other veins), and the pulmonary artery carries DEOXYGENATED blood (unlike other arteries). The SVC and IVC bring deoxygenated blood to the RIGHT atrium.
Question 10 of 11
The semilunar valves (pulmonic and aortic) prevent blood from flowing back into the:
A. Atria from the ventricles
B. Ventricles from the great vessels during relaxation
C. Lungs from the left atrium
D. Body from the right ventricle
The semilunar valves prevent blood from flowing back into the ventricles during relaxation (diastole). They open during ventricular contraction and close when the ventricles begin to relax. The AV valves prevent backflow from ventricles to atria.
Question 11 of 11
The circumflex artery is a branch of the left main coronary artery and supplies blood to the:
A. Right atrium and ventricle
B. SA and AV nodes
C. Left atrium and the lateral and posterior surfaces of the left ventricle
D. Anterior wall of the right ventricle only
The circumflex artery supplies the left atrium and the lateral and posterior surfaces of the left ventricle. It is one of two branches of the left main coronary artery, along with the LAD. The right coronary artery supplies the SA and AV nodes and the right side of the heart.
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Section 1B: The Cardiomyocyte & Control Systems
Ion Channels, Receptors, ANS, Blood Pressure, and Clinical Cascades
🏭 The Cardiomyocyte: The Pump Factory Worker
Now we arrive at the single most important concept in this entire tutorial: the cardiomyocyte, or heart muscle cell. This is the actual worker inside the heart factory, and every concept you will learn from here forward, from electrical conduction to drug mechanisms to heart failure, comes down to what is happening inside these cells. Understanding the cardiomyocyte is the master key that unlocks virtually every cardiac topic on the NCLEX.
Imagine zooming in on a single cell in the myocardium. You would find a miniature factory with its own security wall, a boss’s office, power generators, a calcium warehouse, and contractile machinery. The outer cell membrane is the security wall, made of a phospholipid bilayer studded with special gates called ion channels and receptors. These gates are exactly where cardiac medications do their work. Every drug you will learn about targets a specific gate on this wall. The nucleus is the boss’s office, containing the DNA blueprints for building every protein the cell needs. The mitochondria are the power generators that produce ATP, the energy currency. Heart cells are packed with more mitochondria than almost any other cell type in the body because the heart never stops working, not even for a second. The sarcomeres are the contractile machinery, made of two protein workers called actin and myosin that slide past each other to shorten the cell and produce contraction. And the sarcoplasmic reticulum is the calcium warehouse that stores calcium ions. When calcium is released from the warehouse, it triggers the sarcomeres to contract. When calcium is pumped back into storage, the cell relaxes. This calcium cycle is the fundamental on-off switch for every heartbeat.
Here is a quick reference for each part of the cardiomyocyte factory:
Inside the Cardiomyocyte Factory:
Cell Membrane (Security Wall): Made of a phospholipid bilayer. Controls what enters and exits the cell through special gates called ion channels and receptors.
Nucleus (The Boss Office): Contains DNA instructions for building all the proteins needed for contraction.
Mitochondria (The Power Plants): Produce ATP, the energy currency. Heart cells have MORE mitochondria than almost any other cell because the heart NEVER stops working!
Sarcomeres (The Contractile Machinery): Made of actin and myosin protein workers that slide past each other to make the cell shorten and contract.
Sarcoplasmic Reticulum (The Calcium Warehouse): Stores calcium ions. When calcium is released, it triggers contraction. When calcium is pumped back in, the cell relaxes.
🔒 Security Gates on the Cardiomyocyte: Ion Channels and Receptors
The cardiomyocyte has special gates (receptors and ion channels) on its cell membrane. Medications TARGET these gates! Understanding these gates helps you understand how cardiac drugs work.
🔒 Cardiomyocyte Cell Membrane: Receptors & Ion Channels
The cardiomyocyte membrane has specific receptors and ion channels. Each antidysrhythmic drug class targets a specific gate!
• Class II (-olol) • Metoprolol, Atenolol, Propranolol
• ↓ Heart rate • ↓ BP • ↓ Workload
K+ Channel
• Potassium (K+) flows OUT • Phase 3 of action potential
• Causes repolarization • Resets the cell for next beat
• Class III • Amiodarone, Sotalol
• Prolongs repolarization • Lengthens refractory period
Ca2+ Channel
• Calcium (Ca2+) enters • Phase 2 (plateau)
• Triggers actual contraction! • Slows SA & AV node conduction
• Class IV • Diltiazem, Verapamil
• ↓ Contractility • ↓ HR at SA/AV node • ↓ BP
Beta-2 Receptor
• Located in LUNGS • Smooth muscle
• Bronchodilation • Vasodilation
• Nonselective beta-blockers block BOTH • ⚠ Contraindicated in asthma!
• Bronchoconstriction • Why we prefer cardioselective
💡 Beta-1 = ONE heart | Beta-2 = TWO lungs | Each drug class blocks a specific gate on the cardiomyocyte!
⚡ The Factory's Remote Controls: Autonomic Nervous System
While the heart’s conduction system can generate its own rhythm automatically, the brain has two remote controls that can override the default settings: the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches of the autonomic nervous system. Understanding these two systems is essential because virtually every cardiac medication you will study either mimics or blocks one of them. The sympathetic nervous system is the gas pedal, also called the fight-or-flight response. When activated, it releases the neurotransmitter norepinephrine, which binds to beta-1 receptors on the cardiomyocytes and tells the heart to beat faster and harder. At the cell factory level, norepinephrine opens more calcium channels on the cardiomyocyte membrane, increasing the amount of calcium that reaches the sarcomeres, which produces a stronger contraction. It also speeds up the SA node firing rate and increases conduction speed through the AV node. The parasympathetic nervous system is the brake pedal, also called the rest-and-digest response. It works through the vagus nerve, which releases acetylcholine. Acetylcholine acts on muscarinic receptors on the SA and AV nodes to slow the heart rate and decrease conduction speed. Beta blockers are drugs that block the gas pedal. Atropine is a drug that blocks the brake pedal. Knowing which pedal each drug targets will help you predict every therapeutic effect and side effect.
🏁 Sympathetic = "GAS PEDAL"
Releases norepinephrine. When activated (fight or flight):
Increased heart rate
Increased conduction speed through AV node
Increased atrial and ventricular contractility
Peripheral vasoconstriction
Triggered when blood pressure DECREASES.
😌 Parasympathetic = "BRAKE PEDAL"
Releases acetylcholine via the vagus nerve. When activated (rest and digest):
Decreased heart rate
Lessens atrial and ventricular contractility
Lessens conductivity
Triggered when blood pressure INCREASES.
⚡ Quick Reference: Autonomic Nervous System Effects on the Heart
Feature
🔴 Sympathetic ("Gas Pedal")
🔵 Parasympathetic ("Brake Pedal")
🏭
Neurotransmitter
• Norepinephrine & Epinephrine
• Acetylcholine (via Vagus nerve)
Fuel type
Heart Rate
• ↑ INCREASES (tachycardia)
• ↓ DECREASES (bradycardia)
Speed
Contractility
• ↑ INCREASES (pumps harder)
• Minimal direct effect on ventricles
Power
Conduction
• ↑ FASTER through AV node
• ↓ SLOWER through AV node
Signal
Blood Vessels
• Vasoconstriction • ↑ BP
• Vasodilation • ↓ BP
Pipes
Fight or Flight?
• YES — "fight or flight" • Prepares body for action
• NO — "rest and digest" • Calms the body down
Mode
💡 Beta blockers (-olol) are "brake pedal boosters" — they block sympathetic effects, mimicking parasympathetic slowing!
📈 Blood Pressure Control Systems
Baroreceptors (also called pressoreceptors) are specialized nerve endings located in the walls of the aortic arch and carotid sinuses. They detect changes in arterial blood pressure:
When BP INCREASES → baroreceptors are stimulated → heart rate and arterial pressure DECREASE.
When BP DECREASES → baroreceptors are less stimulated → vasoconstriction and increased heart rate occur.
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS):
Low BP or low blood flow to kidneys ➔ Kidneys release RENIN➔ Renin converts angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I➔ Angiotensin I converted to Angiotensin II in the lungs ➔ Angiotensin II is a POTENT VASOCONSTRICTOR (raises BP) ➔ Also stimulates release of ALDOSTERONE➔ Aldosterone promotes water and sodium retention by kidneys ➔ INCREASES blood volume and BP!
🔬 Connecting the Cues: What You SEE → What’s Happening Inside → What You DO
These Cellular Cascade panels teach you to think like the NCLEX wants: Recognize Cues → Analyze Cues → Take Action
🔬 Cascade #1: LEFT-SIDED Heart Failure — Why the Lungs Fill Up
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NURSE SEES (Clinical Cues): Client is dyspneic (short of breath), has crackles/rales in the lungs on auscultation, orthopnea (cannot lie flat without getting short of breath), paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (wakes up gasping at night), pink frothy sputum (late sign), cyanosis, tachycardia, anxiety, restlessness, and cough.
⬇ WHY is this happening? Trace it back…
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ORGAN LEVEL: The left ventricle cannot pump blood forward effectively into the aorta. Blood backs up behind the failing left ventricle → backs into the left atrium → backs into the pulmonary veins → backs into the lung capillaries. Rising pressure in the pulmonary capillaries forces fluid OUT of the bloodstream and INTO the alveolar spaces. The lungs literally fill with fluid.
⬇ What is failing at the cell level?
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CELL FACTORY LEVEL: The cardiomyocyte factories in the left ventricular wall are damaged or exhausted. Their sarcomere workers (actin-myosin contractile machinery) cannot generate sufficient force. The calcium signaling system may be impaired: not enough Ca²⁺ reaches the sarcomeres through the L-type channels, OR the sarcoplasmic reticulum (the cell’s calcium warehouse) cannot release enough calcium on demand. The Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase pumps are working overtime but falling behind. As cells become oxygen-starved, they switch to anaerobic metabolism, producing lactic acid, which further poisons the cellular machinery.
⬇ How do the drugs help at the cell level?
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DRUG CONNECTIONS:Digoxin blocks Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase → more Ca²⁺ stays in cell → STRONGER contraction (positive inotrope). ACE inhibitors (-pril) block RAAS → less vasoconstriction → reduced afterload → easier for weakened LV to pump. Diuretics (furosemide) → remove excess fluid → less volume backing up into lungs. Beta blockers → slow HR → more filling time → less energy demand on damaged cardiomyocytes.
⬇ What does the LPN DO?
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LPN ACTIONS: Position client in HIGH Fowler’s (sitting up lets gravity pull fluid away from lungs). Administer O₂ as ordered. Auscultate lung sounds and REPORT crackles. Monitor daily weights (1 kg = 1 liter fluid!). Check I&O. Monitor apical pulse before digoxin. REPORT SpO₂ below 90%, increased respiratory rate, pink frothy sputum.
🔬 Cascade #2: RIGHT-SIDED Heart Failure — Why the Body Swells
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NURSE SEES: Dependent edema (ankles, sacrum if bed-bound), jugular vein distension (JVD), weight gain (rapid, 2+ lbs/day), hepatomegaly (enlarged liver), ascites (abdominal fluid), anorexia, nausea. Note: Most common cause of right-sided HF is left-sided HF!
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ORGAN LEVEL: The right ventricle cannot pump blood forward into the pulmonary artery efficiently. Blood backs up behind the RV → backs into the right atrium → backs into the SVC and IVC → backs into the systemic venous system (the entire body). Rising venous pressure forces fluid out of capillaries into the tissues → EDEMA everywhere: legs, liver, abdomen, sacrum.
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CELL FACTORY: Same as left-sided: cardiomyocyte factories are weak. But now the endothelial cells lining blood vessels throughout the body are also affected. Rising hydrostatic pressure on the capillary walls overwhelms the albumin’s ability to hold fluid in the bloodstream (Starling forces). Fluid leaks through gaps between endothelial cells into the interstitial space → visible swelling. Liver cells (hepatocytes) become congested and compressed by the backed-up blood, impairing their ability to produce clotting factors and process medications.
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💜
LPN ACTIONS: Weigh daily (SAME scale, SAME time, SAME clothing). Measure and REPORT edema (pitting scale 1-4+). Measure abdominal girth. Monitor I&O strictly. Low-sodium diet education. Elevate edematous extremities. REPORT JVD, rapid weight gain (>2 lbs/day = 1 liter fluid retained).
🔬 Cascade #3: Myocardial Infarction — Why Chest Pain Means Cell Death
👁
NURSE SEES: Crushing substernal chest pain radiating to left arm, jaw, back, or epigastrium. Pain NOT relieved by rest or nitroglycerin (unlike angina). Diaphoresis (cold sweating), nausea/vomiting, pallor, extreme anxiety (“sense of impending doom”), dyspnea, tachycardia. Women & diabetics may have atypical presentation: fatigue, indigestion, jaw pain, no chest pain.
⬇ Trace back to the artery…
🫁
ORGAN LEVEL: A coronary artery (usually LAD — the “Widow Maker”) becomes completely blocked, usually by a ruptured atherosclerotic plaque + blood clot (thrombus). The myocardial tissue downstream of the blockage receives ZERO blood flow. Without oxygen delivery, the tissue begins to die within 20 minutes. The damage moves from the inner endocardium outward (subendocardial → transmural) over 4-6 hours.
⬇ Inside those starving cardiomyocytes…
🏭
CELL FACTORY: Without oxygen, the cardiomyocyte factories lose their power supply. The mitochondria (power generators) shut down. ATP production drops to nearly zero. Without ATP: (1) the Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase pumps STOP → sodium and water flood into the cell → cell swells, (2) the sarcomeres lock up in permanent contraction (rigor), (3) calcium floods in uncontrolled → activates destructive enzymes, (4) the cell membrane ruptures → cardiac enzymes (troponin, CK-MB) spill into the bloodstream → this is what the lab test detects! Troponin I rises within 3-6 hours of cell death and stays elevated for 7-10 days.
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⚠️
WHY DIAPHORESIS & NAUSEA? The dying cells trigger a massive sympathetic nervous system response: norepinephrine floods the body → vasoconstriction → cold, clammy skin. The vagus nerve is also stimulated → nausea, vomiting, bradycardia. The pain signals travel via cardiac afferent nerves to the spinal cord, which is why pain refers to the arm, jaw, and back (shared nerve pathways).
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💜
LPN ACTIONS (MONA):Morphine (pain relief + vasodilation), Oxygen (feed surviving cells), Nitroglycerin (vasodilate coronary arteries), Aspirin 325mg chewed (prevent further clotting). Position in semi-Fowler’s. Obtain 12-lead ECG. Monitor vitals q5-15 min. REPORT immediately: onset time, character of pain, vital signs, and any changes in consciousness.
🔬 Cascade #4: RAAS Activation — Why Low BP Triggers a Chain Reaction
👁
NURSE SEES: Client has low blood pressure (hypotension), dizziness upon standing (orthostatic hypotension), decreased urine output, rapid heart rate (tachycardia as compensation), possibly from dehydration, hemorrhage, or heart failure.
⬇ The kidneys detect the drop…
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ORGAN LEVEL:Kidneys detect decreased blood flow through the renal arteries. Specialized cells in the juxtaglomerular apparatus release the enzyme RENIN into the bloodstream. This kicks off the entire RAAS cascade.
⬇ The chemical cascade unfolds…
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CELLULAR CASCADE: Renin cleaves a liver protein called angiotensinogen into Angiotensin I (inactive). Angiotensin I passes through the lungs where ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) on the surface of pulmonary endothelial cells converts it to Angiotensin II. This is the key molecule: Angiotensin II binds to receptors on vascular smooth muscle cells → triggers calcium release inside those cells → muscle contracts → blood vessel CONSTRICTS → BP rises. Angiotensin II also travels to the adrenal cortex and stimulates aldosterone release → aldosterone acts on kidney tubule cells → inserts more Na⁺ channels in the membrane → reabsorbs Na⁺ and water → blood volume INCREASES → BP rises further.
⬇ Where drugs intervene (✂️ CUT the cascade)…
💊
DRUG INTERVENTION POINTS:
✂️ ACE Inhibitors (-pril: lisinopril, enalapril) → Block ACE enzyme in lungs → No Angiotensin II produced → BP drops. Side effect: dry cough (ACE also breaks down bradykinin; blocking ACE lets bradykinin accumulate in lungs).
✂️ ARBs (-sartan: losartan, valsartan) → Block the RECEPTOR where Angiotensin II binds on smooth muscle → No vasoconstriction. No cough (bradykinin pathway unaffected).
✂️ Aldosterone Antagonists (spironolactone) → Block aldosterone at kidney → Excrete Na⁺/H₂O, RETAIN K⁺ (K⁺-sparing!).
✂️ Direct Renin Inhibitors (aliskiren) → Block renin at the very start.
💜 LPN Scope of Practice: Cardiovascular Data Collection
Remember: LPNs COLLECT DATA and REPORT. RNs ASSESS and DIAGNOSE.
LPNs collect vital signs including blood pressure, heart rate, and rhythm
LPNs auscultate heart sounds and REPORT abnormal findings to the RN
LPNs monitor peripheral pulses and REPORT changes
LPNs do NOT independently interpret ECGs but can RECOGNIZE life-threatening rhythms and call for help
LPNs reinforce teaching provided by RNs
LPNs work under RN or PHCP supervision
🔬
Quiz 1B: Cellular & Control Systems (9 Questions)
Score 80% to unlock the Electrical Conduction section!
Question 1 of 9
Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system releases norepinephrine, which causes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Increased heart rate
B. Increased contractility
C. Decreased heart rate
D. Peripheral vasoconstriction
Sympathetic stimulation is the gas pedal! It INCREASES heart rate, increases conduction speed, increases contractility, and causes vasoconstriction. DECREASED heart rate is caused by parasympathetic (vagal) stimulation, the brake pedal.
Question 2 of 9
In the Cell Factory model, what are the sarcomeres inside the cardiomyocyte compared to?
A. The power plants producing energy
B. The security gates on the membrane
C. The contractile machinery that does the pumping
D. The boss office with DNA instructions
Sarcomeres contain actin and myosin proteins that slide past each other to make the cell contract and shorten. They are the contractile machinery. Mitochondria are the power plants, ion channels are security gates, and the nucleus is the boss office.
Question 3 of 9
Which ion entering the cardiomyocyte through L-type channels triggers muscle contraction?
A. Sodium (Na+)
B. Potassium (K+)
C. Calcium (Ca2+)
D. Chloride (Cl-)
Calcium entering through L-type calcium channels triggers contraction of the sarcomeres. This is why calcium channel blockers (like diltiazem and verapamil) decrease contractility and slow the heart rate. At the cellular level, blocking calcium entry means less contraction.
Question 4 of 9
Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor produced as part of the RAAS system. It also stimulates the release of which hormone?
A. Insulin
B. Aldosterone
C. Epinephrine
D. Thyroid hormone
Angiotensin II stimulates the release of aldosterone, which promotes water and sodium retention by the kidneys. This increases blood volume and blood pressure. This is why ACE inhibitors (end in -pril) and ARBs (end in -sartan) lower blood pressure: they interrupt this cascade!
Question 5 of 9
The parasympathetic nervous system releases which neurotransmitter to slow the heart rate?
A. Norepinephrine
B. Dopamine
C. Acetylcholine
D. Serotonin
The parasympathetic system releases acetylcholine (ACh) via the vagus nerve, which decreases heart rate and lessens contractility. The sympathetic system releases norepinephrine, which speeds up the heart. ACh acts on M2 muscarinic receptors on the heart.
Question 6 of 9
Beta-1 receptors are located primarily in the heart. When stimulated, they cause:
A. Decreased heart rate and bronchoconstriction
B. Increased heart rate and increased contractility
C. Vasodilation and decreased blood pressure
D. Bronchodilation only
Beta-1 receptors are in the HEART. When stimulated, they increase heart rate and contractility. Memory: beta-1 has ONE heart. Beta-2 receptors are in the LUNGS (two lungs). Beta blockers ending in -olol block these receptors, which is why they slow the heart rate and reduce blood pressure!
Question 7 of 9
Which antidysrhythmic drug class blocks calcium channels on the cardiomyocyte?
A. Class I (sodium channel blockers)
B. Class II (beta blockers)
C. Class III (potassium channel blockers)
D. Class IV (calcium channel blockers)
Class IV drugs are calcium channel blockers (diltiazem, verapamil). They block calcium from entering through L-type calcium channels, slowing conduction through the SA and AV nodes. At the CELL FACTORY level, blocking the calcium gate means less calcium reaches the sarcomeres, reducing contraction force and slowing heart rate.
Question 8 of 9
Baroreceptors are located in the walls of the aortic arch and carotid sinuses. When arterial blood pressure INCREASES, these sensors cause:
A. Heart rate to increase and vasoconstriction
B. Heart rate and arterial pressure to decrease
C. Release of renin from the kidneys
D. No change in cardiovascular function
When arterial pressure increases, baroreceptors are stimulated, and the heart rate and arterial pressure DECREASE. This is a negative feedback loop. Conversely, when BP drops, baroreceptor stimulation decreases, leading to vasoconstriction and increased heart rate.
Question 9 of 9
In the LPN scope of practice, the nurse auscultates an abnormal heart sound. The appropriate action is to:
A. Diagnose the client with a heart murmur
B. Report the finding to the RN or PHCP
C. Order an echocardiogram independently
D. Administer a cardiac medication without an order
LPNs COLLECT DATA and REPORT. When an abnormal finding is noted, the LPN reports to the RN or PHCP. LPNs do NOT independently diagnose, order tests, or administer medications without orders. This is a key scope-of-practice concept that NCLEX loves to test!
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Section 2: The Electrical Control Tower
SA Node, AV Node, Bundle of His, Purkinje Fibers, and ECG Basics
⚡ The Heart's Electrical System: Why Timing Is Everything
The heart has its own built-in electrical conduction system made of specialized cells that can automatically create, conduct, and respond to electrical impulses. Think of this as the factory's communication network. Without it, the muscle workers (cardiomyocytes) would not know WHEN to contract!
Electrical impulses travel through the heart muscle in a specific order, causing the chambers to contract in the right sequence: atria first, then ventricles. This coordinated contraction is what produces an effective heartbeat and pumps blood efficiently.
⚡ The Conduction System: Factory Communication Network
The conduction system follows a strict pathway: SA Node → Internodal → AV Node (delay) → Bundle of His → Bundle Branches → Purkinje Fibers
🔌 The Conduction Pathway Step by Step
The heart’s conduction system works like a factory’s communication network. An electrical impulse is generated at the top and travels down through a series of relay stations, each one passing the message to the next until every cardiomyocyte has received the signal to contract. The system has a built-in hierarchy of backup pacemakers. If the primary pacemaker fails, the next one in line takes over, although at a slower and less reliable rate. This is why patients with conduction blocks develop bradycardia, because the lower backup pacemakers fire at progressively slower rates. On the NCLEX, you must know the normal firing rate for each pacemaker: the SA node fires at 60 to 100 beats per minute, the AV node backs up at 40 to 60, and the Purkinje fibers serve as the last resort at only 20 to 40 beats per minute. Here is each relay station in order:
SA Node (Sinoatrial Node) — Located at the junction of the superior vena cava and the right atrium. Generates impulses at 60 to 100 beats per minute. Controlled by the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. This is the MASTER PACEMAKER that initiates each heartbeat.
Internodal Pathways — Spread the impulse through both atria, causing atrial contraction. This creates the P wave on the ECG.
AV Node (Atrioventricular Node) — Located in the lower aspect of the atrial septum. DELAYS the impulse for about 0.1 seconds! Why? To allow the atria to finish contracting before the ventricles start. If the SA node fails, the AV node can take over at 40 to 60 beats per minute.
Bundle of His — A continuation of the AV node located at the interventricular septum. Branches into the right and left bundle branches.
Bundle Branches — The right bundle branch extends down the right side of the septum. The left bundle branch extends into the left ventricle. They terminate into Purkinje fibers.
Purkinje Fibers — A diffuse network beneath the ventricular endocardium. Spread the wave of depolarization rapidly through the ventricles, causing coordinated ventricular contraction. This creates the QRS complex on the ECG. Can act as a last-resort pacemaker at 20 to 40 beats per minute.
🔌 Quick Reference: Cardiac Conduction Pathway (Step by Step)
Step
Structure
Rate
Function
🏭 Factory Analogy & ECG
1
SA Node (Right atrium)
60-100 bpm Primary pacemaker
• Initiates ALL heartbeats • Fires automatically • Sets the rhythm for entire heart
• Factory BOSS • Creates P wave on ECG
2
AV Node (Floor of R atrium)
40-60 bpm Backup #1
• DELAYS signal 0.05 sec • Allows atria to finish contracting • Gatekeeper to ventricles
• Factory SECURITY gate • Creates PR interval
3
Bundle of His (Interventricular septum)
Conducts rapidly
• Splits into Left & Right bundle branches • Sends signal down the septum
• Factory HIGHWAY • Part of QRS complex
4
Bundle Branches (Left & Right)
Conducts rapidly
• Carry impulse to each ventricle • Left branch has 2 fascicles
• Factory EXIT RAMPS • Part of QRS complex
5
Purkinje Fibers (Ventricular walls)
20-40 bpm Backup #2
• Spread depolarization RAPIDLY • Both ventricles contract together • Terminal point of conduction
• Factory INTERCOM to every worker • Completes QRS complex
💡 SA Node fails → AV Node takes over (40-60 bpm) → If AV fails → Purkinje fibers (20-40 bpm) — Each backup is SLOWER!
🏭 Inside the Cell Factory: The Cardiac Action Potential — Why Every Drug Class Matters
To truly understand how antidysrhythmic drugs work, you need to see what happens inside a single cardiomyocyte during each heartbeat. The electrical activity of a heart cell follows a precise 5-phase cycle called the cardiac action potential. Each phase involves specific ions flowing through specific channels. Each drug class targets a different phase.
Phase 0 (Rapid Depolarization): Fast sodium channels open and Na⁺ rushes INTO the cell. This causes the electrical charge inside the cell to rapidly shift from negative to positive, creating the electrical spark that begins contraction. On the ECG, this produces the QRS complex. Class I drugs (sodium channel blockers like quinidine) work by slowing this phase, making depolarization less aggressive.
Phase 1 (Early Repolarization): A brief initial recovery occurs. Sodium channels close and a small amount of potassium begins to leave the cell.
Phase 2 (Plateau Phase): This is the longest phase and is unique to cardiac cells. Calcium enters through L-type calcium channels while potassium slowly exits. The calcium influx is what triggers the sarcomeres to contract. This plateau phase is why cardiac muscle contraction lasts longer than skeletal muscle contraction. Class IV drugs (calcium channel blockers like diltiazem and verapamil) work here by blocking calcium entry, reducing contraction force and slowing conduction through the SA and AV nodes.
Phase 3 (Repolarization): Calcium channels close and potassium exits rapidly through delayed rectifier potassium channels. The cell returns to its resting negative charge. On the ECG, this produces the T wave. This is the VULNERABLE PERIOD where a stray impulse could trigger ventricular fibrillation. Class III drugs (potassium channel blockers like amiodarone) work here by slowing potassium exit, prolonging the refractory period so the cell cannot be restimulated too quickly.
Phase 4 (Resting Membrane Potential): The Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase pump restores the normal ion balance by pumping sodium out and potassium in. The cell is at rest and ready for the next impulse. Class II drugs (beta blockers) work by blocking the beta-1 receptor, reducing how often the SA node fires and thus how frequently Phase 0 begins.
⚡ Cardiac Action Potential: Where Each Drug Class Acts
The cardiac action potential shows WHY each drug class works: Class I blocks Na⁺ (Phase 0), Class II blocks β1 (Phase 4 rate), Class III blocks K⁺ (Phase 3), Class IV blocks Ca²⁺ (Phase 2). The T wave = Phase 3 = the vulnerable period.
📈 The ECG: Factory Performance Report
The electrocardiogram, commonly called an ECG or EKG, is one of the most important diagnostic tools in cardiovascular nursing. Think of it as the factory’s performance report. Just as a factory manager might check a printout to see whether machines are running on schedule, the ECG prints out a tracing that shows exactly how the heart’s electrical system is performing. It is a common, noninvasive diagnostic test useful for detecting cardiac dysrhythmias, determining the location and extent of myocardial infarction, identifying cardiac hypertrophy, and evaluating the effectiveness of cardiac medications.
At the cell factory level, each wave on the ECG represents millions of cardiomyocyte factories doing something specific at the same time. When the P wave appears, the atrial cardiomyocytes are depolarizing, meaning sodium is rushing through their fast sodium channels and the cells are beginning to contract. When the QRS complex appears, the much larger ventricular cardiomyocytes are depolarizing. And when the T wave appears, the ventricular cells are repolarizing, meaning potassium is flowing back out through their potassium channels and the cells are resetting for the next beat. Each interval between these waves has a normal range, and when those intervals become too short or too long, it tells you that something is wrong with the electrical wiring of the heart factory.
For the NCLEX, you need to know that the PR interval, which runs from the beginning of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS, normally measures 0.12 to 0.20 seconds. This interval includes the brief AV node delay. A prolonged PR interval means the signal is being delayed too long at the AV checkpoint. The QRS complex should be narrow, between 0.06 and 0.12 seconds. A widened QRS means the ventricles are taking too long to depolarize, which could indicate a bundle branch block or the effects of certain drugs. As an LPN, you would REPORT any abnormal ECG findings to the RN or PHCP.
📈 Normal ECG Waveform: What Each Wave Means
P wave = atria depolarize | QRS = ventricles depolarize | T wave = ventricles repolarize (reset) | The T wave is the VULNERABLE period!
💡 Memory Trick: ECG Waves
"P-QRS-T = People Quit Running, Stand, Then sit"
P wave = Atrial depolarization (atria contract)
QRS complex = Ventricular depolarization (ventricles contract) — should be narrow (0.06 to 0.12 seconds)
T wave = Ventricular repolarization (ventricles reset/relax) — the VULNERABLE period where a shock could trigger V-fib!
PR interval = Time from atrial depolarization to ventricular depolarization (0.12 to 0.20 seconds) — includes the AV node delay
📈 Quick Reference: ECG Waves & Intervals
Wave/Interval
What It Represents
Normal Duration
If Abnormal…
🏭 Factory Analogy
P Wave
• Atrial depolarization • SA node fires, atria contract
• Small, rounded, upright • One P before each QRS
• Absent P = A-Fib • Flutter waves = A-Flutter • Multiple P = heart block
• Boss sends work order
PR Interval
• AV node delay • P wave start to QRS start
• 0.12-0.20 sec • 3-5 small boxes
• >0.20 = 1st degree heart block • Digoxin can prolong it • <0.12 = preexcitation
The SA node is located at the junction of the superior vena cava and which chamber?
A. Right atrium
B. Left atrium
C. Right ventricle
D. Left ventricle
The SA node is located at the junction of the superior vena cava and the RIGHT atrium. It generates electrical impulses at 60 to 100 bpm and is the master pacemaker of the heart.
Question 2 of 11
The normal firing rate of the SA node is:
A. 20-40 beats/min
B. 40-60 beats/min
C. 60-100 beats/min
D. 100-150 beats/min
The SA node fires at 60-100 bpm (normal sinus rhythm). The AV node backup is 40-60 bpm. Purkinje fibers are the last resort at 20-40 bpm. Remember: the lower the pacemaker site, the slower the rate.
Question 3 of 11
The AV node delays the electrical impulse for approximately 0.1 seconds. The purpose of this delay is to:
A. Allow the ventricles to contract before the atria
B. Allow the atria to finish contracting before the ventricles start
C. Prevent any electrical signal from reaching the ventricles
D. Speed up the overall heart rate
The AV node acts as a checkpoint gate that DELAYS the impulse so the atria can finish emptying blood into the ventricles before the ventricles contract. Without this delay, the heart would be inefficient because chambers would try to contract at the same time.
Question 4 of 11
The P wave on an ECG represents:
A. Ventricular depolarization
B. Ventricular repolarization
C. Atrial depolarization
D. The AV node delay
The P wave represents atrial depolarization, when the electrical impulse spreads through the atria causing them to contract. The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The T wave represents ventricular repolarization.
Question 5 of 11
The QRS complex on an ECG represents:
A. Atrial contraction
B. Ventricular depolarization (contraction)
C. The SA node firing
D. Ventricular relaxation
The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The rapid spread of electrical impulse through the Bundle of His, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers causes the ventricles to contract. A normal QRS is narrow (0.06-0.12 seconds). A WIDE QRS may indicate a ventricular origin or bundle branch block.
Question 6 of 11
If the SA node fails, the AV node can take over as backup pacemaker at what rate?
A. 60-100 beats/min
B. 40-60 beats/min
C. 20-40 beats/min
D. 100-150 beats/min
The AV node can take over at 40-60 bpm if the SA node fails. This is called a junctional escape rhythm. Purkinje fibers are the last resort at 20-40 bpm. Each backup level fires at a SLOWER rate.
Question 7 of 11
Purkinje fibers are located beneath the ventricular endocardium. Their primary function is to:
A. Generate the primary heartbeat
B. Delay the impulse for atrial filling
C. Spread the wave of depolarization rapidly through the ventricles
D. Contract the atria
Purkinje fibers spread depolarization rapidly through the ventricles for coordinated contraction. They are the terminal point of the conduction system and produce the QRS complex.
Question 8 of 11
At the cell factory level, sodium ions entering through fast sodium channels cause:
A. Repolarization
B. Depolarization (the electrical signal to contract)
C. Relaxation only
D. No electrical change
Sodium entering through fast sodium channels causes depolarization, the initial rapid electrical change that starts the contraction process. This is why Class I antidysrhythmics (sodium channel blockers) slow conduction, they block the very first step of depolarization!
Question 9 of 11
The Bundle of His is located at the:
A. Right atrium
B. Left atrium
C. Interventricular septum
D. Aortic arch
The Bundle of His is a continuation of the AV node located at the interventricular septum. It branches into the right and left bundle branches that carry the impulse to each ventricle.
Question 10 of 11
The PR interval on an ECG represents the time from atrial depolarization to ventricular depolarization, which includes the AV node delay. The normal duration is:
A. 0.04 to 0.08 seconds
B. 0.12 to 0.20 seconds
C. 0.30 to 0.44 seconds
D. 0.50 to 0.60 seconds
The normal PR interval is 0.12-0.20 seconds. A prolonged PR interval (greater than 0.20 seconds) can indicate first-degree heart block, where the AV node is delaying the impulse longer than normal.
Question 11 of 11
When the faster the heart rate occurs, what happens to cardiac output?
A. Cardiac output always increases with faster rates
B. Cardiac output decreases because there is less time for filling
C. Cardiac output stays the same regardless of rate
D. Cardiac output only changes with medications
The faster the heart rate, the less time the heart has for filling, and the cardiac output DECREASES. This is a critical concept: tachycardia is not just fast beating, it actually reduces the heart's effectiveness. This is why tachycardia causes symptoms like dizziness and hypotension.
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Section 2B: Electrolytes & ECG Changes
How potassium, calcium, and magnesium affect the heart at the cellular level
⚠️ CRITICAL: Electrolyte Imbalances & the Heart
Electrolyte imbalances can cause life-threatening cardiac electrical instability! At the CELL FACTORY level, electrolytes are the ions that flow through the security gates (ion channels). If levels are off, the gates malfunction!
🔴 POTASSIUM (K+)
Hypokalemia (Low K+): Increased cardiac electrical instability, ventricular dysrhythmias, increased risk of DIGOXIN TOXICITY. ECG shows: flattened T waves, U waves, ST depression.
Hyperkalemia (High K+): Can cause asystole and ventricular dysrhythmias. ECG shows: tall peaked T waves, widened QRS, prolonged PR, flat P waves.
🟠 CALCIUM (Ca2+)
Hypocalcemia: Ventricular dysrhythmias, prolonged ST and QT interval, cardiac arrest.
Hypercalcemia: Shortened ST segment, widened T wave, AV block, tachycardia or bradycardia, digitalis hypersensitivity, cardiac arrest.
🟣 MAGNESIUM (Mg2+)
Hypomagnesemia (Low Mg): Can cause ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation! ECG shows tall T waves, depressed ST.
📈 Seeing Electrolyte Changes on ECG: A Visual Recognition Guide
At the cell factory level, electrolytes are the raw materials that flow through the security gates (ion channels). When these materials are out of balance, the gates malfunction and the ECG shows characteristic patterns that you can learn to recognize. This is a heavily tested NCLEX skill.
Hyperkalemia (too much potassium outside the cell) produces tall, tent-shaped, peaked T waves. Think of it as the potassium gates being overwhelmed: the repolarization phase becomes exaggerated. As hyperkalemia worsens, the QRS widens and the P waves flatten and eventually disappear. Severe hyperkalemia can cause asystole and death.
Hypokalemia (too little potassium) produces flattened T waves, prominent U waves (a small wave after the T wave that is normally invisible), and ST depression. The cell cannot properly repolarize because there is not enough potassium to exit. Critically, hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity because digoxin and potassium compete for the same binding site on the Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase pump.
Hypocalcemia produces a prolonged QT interval because the plateau phase (Phase 2) of the action potential is extended when there is insufficient calcium. A prolonged QT interval puts the client at risk for a dangerous dysrhythmia called Torsades de Pointes, which can degenerate into V-Fib.
📈 Electrolyte Imbalances: What They Look Like on ECG
Learn to see the patterns: Hyperkalemia = tall peaked T waves. Hypokalemia = flat T waves + U wave. Hypocalcemia = prolonged QT. Each pattern tells you what the ion channels are doing wrong!
• K+ gates can’t close properly = cells become unstable
Hypocalcemia
• Ca2+ < 9.0 mg/dL
• Prolonged QT interval
• Torsades de Pointes risk • Decreased contractility
• Not enough calcium for contraction machinery
Hypercalcemia
• Ca2+ > 10.5 mg/dL
• Shortened QT interval
• Enhanced digitalis toxicity • Heart block possible
• Too much calcium = over-contracted, rigid cells
Hypomagnesemia
• Mg2+ < 1.3 mEq/L
• Flat T waves • Prolonged QT
• VT and V-Fib! • Torsades de Pointes • Worsens hypokalemia
• Mg stabilizes gates; without it, gates malfunction
💡 NCLEX KEY: Always check K+ and Mg2+ BEFORE giving digoxin! Low K+ or Mg2+ = digoxin toxicity risk even at normal digoxin levels!
🔬 Connecting the Cues: Electrical System Cascades
🔬 Cascade #5: Hyperkalemia — Why Too Much Potassium Stops the Heart
👁
NURSE SEES: ECG shows tall, peaked T waves, widened QRS complex, flattened P waves. Client may report muscle weakness, tingling, nausea. Late: bradycardia progressing to cardiac arrest. Lab: K⁺ > 5.0 mEq/L.
⬇ What is potassium doing to the cardiomyocytes?
🏭
CELL FACTORY: Normally, the resting membrane potential of a cardiomyocyte depends on a large potassium gradient: high K⁺ INSIDE, low K⁺ OUTSIDE. When blood potassium rises too high, this gradient shrinks. The resting membrane potential becomes less negative (partially depolarized). This makes the cell easier to fire initially (irritability = peaked T waves) but then increasingly harder to reset. The sodium channels cannot fully recover between beats → QRS widens as depolarization slows. Eventually the cells reach a state where they cannot depolarize at all → asystole (cardiac standstill).
⬇
⚠️
CRITICAL CONNECTION: Clients on potassium-sparing diuretics (spironolactone), ACE inhibitors (-pril), or ARBs (-sartan) are at risk for hyperkalemia because these drugs cause the kidneys to RETAIN potassium. Clients with kidney failure cannot excrete potassium. NEVER give potassium supplements to clients with renal failure without verifying K⁺ levels!
⬇
💜
LPN ACTIONS: Monitor ECG for peaked T waves. Check and REPORT K⁺ > 5.0 mEq/L immediately. Hold K⁺ supplements. Hold potassium-sparing diuretics. Emergency treatments (ordered by PHCP): IV calcium gluconate (stabilizes cardiac membrane), insulin + glucose (drives K⁺ into cells), sodium bicarbonate, Kayexalate (removes K⁺ through GI tract).
🔬 Cascade #6: Symptomatic Bradycardia — When the Pacemaker Fires Too Slowly
👁
NURSE SEES: Heart rate < 60 bpm. Client reports dizziness, lightheadedness, syncope (fainting), fatigue, confusion, exercise intolerance. Hypotension. May be asymptomatic in conditioned athletes (normal variant).
⬇
🏭
CELL FACTORY: The SA node pacemaker cells are unique because they spontaneously depolarize (autorhythmicity). They have “funny channels” (HCN channels) that slowly let sodium leak in during Phase 4, gradually raising the membrane potential until it reaches threshold and fires. When this spontaneous rate slows, it is because: (1) the parasympathetic nervous system (vagus nerve) is releasing acetylcholine onto M2 muscarinic receptors → this opens special K⁺ channels (IKACh) → more potassium leaves → the cell takes LONGER to reach threshold → slower firing rate; OR (2) the SA node cells themselves are damaged (fibrosis, ischemia); OR (3) medications like beta blockers, digoxin, or calcium channel blockers are suppressing the SA node rate.
⬇
💊
DRUG CONNECTIONS:Atropine is the first-line drug. It BLOCKS the M2 muscarinic receptor → blocks acetylcholine’s braking effect → SA node fires faster. Think of it as releasing the parking brake on the heart. If atropine fails, a temporary pacemaker provides external electrical stimulation. For chronic bradycardia: permanent pacemaker implantation.
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LPN ACTIONS: Check if client is symptomatic (dizziness, syncope, hypotension). Asymptomatic bradycardia in athletes = no treatment needed. REPORT symptomatic bradycardia immediately. Monitor continuous ECG. Ensure IV access. Have atropine available. Do NOT hold beta blocker without PHCP order, but REPORT the low HR before administering the dose.
LPNs do NOT independently interpret ECGs. However, LPNs MUST be able to RECOGNIZE life-threatening rhythms (V-fib, V-tach, asystole) and immediately call for help. This is a critical RECOGNIZE CUES skill for NCLEX-PN!
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Quiz 2B: Electrolytes & ECG Changes (9 Questions)
Score 80% to unlock Dysrhythmias!
Question 1 of 9
The T wave represents ventricular repolarization. Why is this called the vulnerable period?
A. The heart is most resistant to stimulation during this time
B. An electrical impulse during this time could trigger ventricular fibrillation
C. The atria are contracting during this time
D. Blood pressure is at its highest during this time
The T wave is the vulnerable period because the ventricles are resetting. A PVC falling on the T wave (R-on-T phenomenon) can trigger V-fib! This is why cardioversion must be SYNCHRONIZED to the R wave to AVOID shocking during the T wave.
Question 2 of 9
Hypokalemia is dangerous for the heart because it can cause:
A. Decreased cardiac electrical instability
B. Increased cardiac electrical instability and increased risk of digoxin toxicity
C. Only high blood pressure
D. Strengthened heart contractions
Hypokalemia causes INCREASED cardiac electrical instability, ventricular dysrhythmias, and increased risk of digoxin toxicity. ECG changes include flattened T waves, U waves, and ST depression. This is why potassium levels MUST be monitored in clients on digoxin or diuretics!
Question 3 of 9
Hyperkalemia on ECG shows:
A. Flattened T waves and U waves
B. Tall peaked T waves, widened QRS, prolonged PR
C. ST elevation only
D. No ECG changes
Hyperkalemia shows tall peaked T waves, widened QRS complexes, prolonged PR intervals, or flat P waves. At the cell factory level, too much potassium outside the cell disrupts the normal electrical reset cycle, making the cell unable to properly repolarize.
Question 4 of 9
Normal sinus rhythm originates from the SA node with a regular rate of:
A. 40 to 60 beats/min
B. 60 to 100 beats/min
C. 100 to 150 beats/min
D. 20 to 40 beats/min
Normal sinus rhythm has a rate of 60-100 bpm. The PR interval and QRS width are within normal limits. This is the goal rhythm for every cardiac patient.
Question 5 of 9
Sinus bradycardia is defined as a heart rate less than:
A. 100 beats/min
B. 80 beats/min
C. 60 beats/min
D. 40 beats/min
Sinus bradycardia is a rate less than 60 bpm with a regular rhythm. Note that this may be NORMAL for athletes. Treatment is needed only if the client is symptomatic (signs of decreased cardiac output). Treatment may include atropine sulfate or a pacemaker.
Question 6 of 9
Sinus tachycardia has a rate of:
A. 60 to 100 beats/min
B. 100 to 180 beats/min
C. 40 to 60 beats/min
D. 200 to 300 beats/min
Sinus tachycardia is 100-180 bpm with regular rhythm and normal P waves before each QRS. Important: the faster the heart rate, the less time for ventricular filling, so cardiac output DECREASES. Common causes include fever, pain, anxiety, hypovolemia.
Question 7 of 9
A low magnesium level can cause which life-threatening dysrhythmia?
A. Sinus bradycardia only
B. Ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation
C. Atrial flutter only
D. Normal sinus rhythm
Hypomagnesemia can cause ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation! ECG changes include tall T waves and depressed ST segments. Magnesium is essential for proper potassium channel function. Low Mg often accompanies low K, making the heart doubly unstable.
Question 8 of 9
The electrocardiogram is useful for detecting all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Cardiac dysrhythmias
B. Location and extent of MI
C. Blood cholesterol levels
D. Effectiveness of cardiac medications
ECG detects dysrhythmias, MI location, cardiac hypertrophy, and medication effectiveness. Blood cholesterol is determined by a blood test (lipid panel), NOT by ECG. The ECG only measures electrical activity.
Question 9 of 9
An LPN notices a client on a cardiac monitor suddenly shows a chaotic, wavy line with no organized rhythm. The LPN should FIRST:
A. Continue to monitor and document
B. Call for help immediately as this may be ventricular fibrillation
C. Administer digoxin
D. Check the blood pressure and wait
A chaotic wavy line with no organized rhythm is V-fib, which is FATAL within 3-5 minutes without treatment! The LPN must IMMEDIATELY call for help and begin CPR. This is a Recognize Cues question: the cue is the chaotic rhythm, the action is immediate emergency response.
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Section 3: Dysrhythmias — When the Electrical System Malfunctions
Recognizing life-threatening rhythms is a critical NCLEX skill!
⚠️ What Are Dysrhythmias?
Dysrhythmias occur when the electrical conduction system malfunctions. At the cell factory level, this means the cardiomyocyte communication network has broken down. Cells may fire too fast because abnormal pacemaker sites are generating impulses, or too slow because the normal pacemaker sites are damaged or blocked. The heart may beat irregularly because multiple sites are competing to send signals, or the rhythm may originate from the wrong location entirely, such as from the ventricles instead of the SA node. Common causes include hypoxia, which starves the cells of oxygen and disrupts their electrical behavior, electrolyte imbalances especially potassium and magnesium, adverse effects of medications including digoxin and antidysrhythmics, and damage from cardiac procedures or myocardial infarction.
The primary nursing concern with any dysrhythmia is whether the rhythm affects how well the heart can pump blood, which is called cardiac output. A rhythm that looks alarming on a monitor might be tolerated well by one client, while a less dramatic-looking rhythm might cause dangerous hemodynamic instability in another. This is why NCLEX emphasizes clinical judgment: always observe the client first, not just the monitor. The overall goal of treatment is to restore a normal rate and rhythm that maintains adequate cardiac output and tissue perfusion. For the NCLEX Next Generation clinical judgment model, dysrhythmias are a perfect example of recognizing cues, analyzing cues, and taking action.
📈 Learning to SEE Dysrhythmias: Your Visual Recognition Guide
As an LPN, you will not be expected to independently interpret ECGs, but you MUST be able to visually recognize life-threatening rhythms and call for help immediately. This is a Recognize Cues skill. The difference between recognizing ventricular fibrillation in seconds versus hesitating for even one minute can be the difference between life and death. VF is fatal within 3 to 5 minutes without treatment.
Each rhythm has a signature visual pattern. Normal sinus rhythm looks organized and predictable: a small rounded P wave, followed by a tall sharp QRS complex, followed by a rounded T wave, repeating in an even pattern like a steady heartbeat. As rhythms become more dangerous, they become more chaotic, faster, wider, or flatter.
Atrial fibrillation loses its P waves entirely because the atria are quivering instead of contracting. The baseline looks wavy and the rhythm is irregularly irregular, meaning there is no pattern to the irregularity. Ventricular tachycardia shows very wide QRS complexes that fire rapidly because the impulse originates in the ventricle rather than the normal conduction pathway. Ventricular fibrillation shows pure chaos with no identifiable waves at all, just a wildly undulating line. Asystole is the most sobering: a flat line with no electrical activity whatsoever.
Study the visual gallery below carefully. Train your eyes to immediately spot these patterns. On NCLEX, you may see a rhythm strip image and be asked to identify the appropriate nursing action.
📈 Rhythm Strip Recognition Gallery: Learn to See the Pattern!
Train your eyes! NSR = organized. A-Fib = irregular, no P waves. V-Tach = wide and fast. V-Fib = total chaos. Asystole = flat. Recognition saves lives!
💀 Quick Reference: Life-Threatening Dysrhythmias
Rhythm
ECG Pattern
Pulse?
Treatment
🏭 What’s Happening in the Factory
V-Tach (VT)
• Wide, bizarre QRS • Rate 150-250 bpm • No identifiable P waves
• May have pulse • OR pulseless • Check pulse FIRST!
• With pulse: Amiodarone, sync cardioversion • Pulseless: Defibrillate!
• Rogue worker took over from the boss • Ventricles firing chaotically from wrong location
V-Fib (VF)
• Chaotic, irregular waves • No QRS, no P, no T • Coarse or fine fibrillation
• All workers shaking randomly • Zero productive pumping • Factory in total chaos
Asystole
• FLAT LINE • No electrical activity • "Confirm in 2 leads"
NO PULSE! = Clinical death!
• CPR + Epinephrine • ⚠ Do NOT defibrillate! • No rhythm to shock
• Factory SHUT DOWN • Power completely off • Nothing to restart with shock
PEA
• ECG shows some rhythm • BUT no mechanical output
NO PULSE! Despite ECG activity
• CPR + Epinephrine • Find & treat CAUSE • ⚠ Do NOT defibrillate!
• Intercom works but workers can’t respond • Electrical signal ≠ mechanical pump
💡 SHOCKABLE: VT (pulseless) & VF — NON-SHOCKABLE: Asystole & PEA — "You can’t shock a flatline!"
💛 Atrial Dysrhythmias (Supraventricular)
Atrial dysrhythmias originate above the ventricles, which is why they are also called supraventricular dysrhythmias. At the cell factory level, the problem is in the atrial cardiomyocytes: electrical impulses are being generated from abnormal locations, or the normal impulses are being conducted through abnormal pathways. The most clinically significant atrial dysrhythmia is atrial fibrillation, commonly called A-Fib. In A-Fib, hundreds of chaotic electrical impulses fire from multiple sites across both atria at rates of 350 to 600 times per minute. Instead of contracting in a coordinated fashion, the atria simply quiver. This quivering allows blood to pool and stagnate in the atrial chambers, which creates a perfect environment for blood clots, or thrombi, to form. If one of these clots breaks loose and travels to the brain, it causes a stroke. This is why anticoagulant therapy is absolutely critical in A-Fib, and why NCLEX tests this connection heavily. On the ECG, A-Fib has no identifiable P waves, only chaotic fibrillatory waves, and the rhythm is irregularly irregular, meaning there is no pattern to the irregularity at all. Atrial flutter is similar but more organized, producing a characteristic sawtooth pattern on the ECG. Here are the key details:
Atrial Fibrillation (A-Fib) — Most Common Atrial Dysrhythmia!
Multiple rapid impulses from many foci depolarize in the atria in a totally disorganized manner at a rate of 350 to 600 times per minute.
The atria QUIVER instead of contracting effectively, which can lead to the formation of THROMBI (blood clots)!
Usually no definitive P wave can be observed, only fibrillatory waves before each QRS.
Treatment: Oxygen, anticoagulants (to prevent clots!), cardiac medications (rate control), and possible cardioversion. Notify the RN.
Premature Ventricular Contractions (PVCs)
Early ventricular complexes from increased irritability of the ventricles.
PVCs occur in patterns: bigeminy (every other beat), trigeminy (every 3rd beat), quadrigeminy (every 4th beat).
DANGER SIGNS with PVCs — Notify PHCP: Chest pain, increasing frequency, multifocal PVCs, PVCs falling on the T wave (R-on-T, can trigger V-Fib!), or runs of V-Tach.
Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia (PSVT)
Sudden, rapid onset of tachycardia originating in the AV node.
Often begins and ends spontaneously.
May be precipitated by excitement, fatigue, caffeine, smoking, or alcohol.
⚠️ Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA)
Pulseless electrical activity, or PEA, is one of the most dangerous and deceptive situations in cardiac care, and it is a heavily tested NCLEX concept. In PEA, the cardiac monitor shows organized electrical activity that may look completely normal, with identifiable P waves, QRS complexes, and T waves, but there is NO actual mechanical contraction of the heart. The cardiomyocyte factories are receiving the electrical signal, but they are not responding with contraction. At the cell factory level, this disconnect can occur when the cells are too damaged, too oxygen-starved, or too depleted of calcium and ATP to physically contract even though the electrical wiring is intact. Think of it like a factory alarm going off but all the workers are incapacitated and cannot respond.
The critical clinical lesson for the NCLEX is this: never trust the monitor alone. PEA is the most common dysrhythmia seen immediately after defibrillation, so after every shock delivery, you must check for a pulse. If the monitor shows a rhythm but there is no pulse, the client is in PEA and requires immediate CPR and epinephrine. PEA is a non-shockable rhythm, which means defibrillation will NOT help. You cannot shock cells into contracting when the problem is mechanical failure, not electrical chaos. The treatment is high-quality CPR, IV epinephrine every 3 to 5 minutes, and identifying and treating the underlying cause, which often includes hypovolemia, hypoxia, hydrogen ion excess or acidosis, hypokalemia or hyperkalemia, hypothermia, cardiac tamponade, tension pneumothorax, toxins, or thrombosis. Always remember: check the patient, not just the monitor!
💡 Memory Trick: Shockable vs Non-Shockable Rhythms
SHOCKABLE (Defibrillation): V-Fib and Pulseless V-Tach — Think "V" for "Voltage needed!"
NON-SHOCKABLE: Asystole and PEA — You cannot shock a flatline! Give CPR + Epinephrine.
🚨 Clinical Judgment in Action: The Cardiac Emergency Decision Pathway
When you walk into a room and find a client who appears unresponsive, your brain must follow a rapid, systematic decision pathway. The Next Generation NCLEX tests this through the Clinical Judgment Model: you Recognize Cues (what do you see?), Analyze Cues (what do they mean?), Prioritize Hypotheses (what is most likely and most dangerous?), and Generate Solutions (what do you do FIRST?).
The very first step is always to check responsiveness: tap the client and ask loudly, “Are you okay?” If there is no response, call for help immediately and activate the emergency response system. Next, check the carotid pulse for a maximum of 10 seconds. Do not waste precious time with prolonged pulse checks. If there is no pulse, you have entered a cardiac arrest situation and must determine whether the rhythm is shockable or non-shockable.
The two shockable rhythms are ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Both show electrical activity that can be “reset” with defibrillation. The two non-shockable rhythms are asystole (no electrical activity at all) and pulseless electrical activity (the monitor shows a rhythm but there is no mechanical contraction producing a pulse). For non-shockable rhythms, you provide CPR and epinephrine. Shocking a flatline accomplishes nothing because there is no electrical activity to reset.
If the client has a pulse but is hemodynamically unstable (hypotension, altered level of consciousness, chest pain), and the rhythm is ventricular tachycardia, the treatment is synchronized cardioversion plus antidysrhythmic medications. Always re-evaluate after every 2 minutes (5 cycles of CPR) or after any intervention.
NURSE SEES:Irregularly irregular pulse (the hallmark). Client may report palpitations (“my heart feels like it’s fluttering”), fatigue, dizziness, shortness of breath, exercise intolerance, or chest discomfort. Some clients are completely asymptomatic. ECG shows NO identifiable P waves, fibrillatory (wavy) baseline, and R-R intervals that are never the same distance apart.
⬇ Why no P waves?
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ORGAN LEVEL: Instead of the SA node firing one organized impulse, 350-600 chaotic electrical impulses per minute are firing from multiple locations throughout the atria simultaneously. The atrial muscle cannot contract in a coordinated fashion. Instead, it quivers (fibrillates). Since the atria do not contract effectively, they contribute no “atrial kick” to ventricular filling, reducing cardiac output by approximately 15-25%.
⬇ Inside the atrial cardiomyocytes…
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CELL FACTORY: Hundreds of atrial cardiomyocyte factories are firing independently, each receiving random electrical signals from multiple directions. The ion channels are being activated chaotically: Na⁺ channels opening and closing without coordination, Ca²⁺ channels triggered randomly. No two adjacent cells contract at the same time. The AV node acts as a gatekeeper, only allowing some of these chaotic impulses through to the ventricles, which is why the ventricular rate (what you measure as HR) is irregularly irregular rather than 350-600 bpm.
⬇ The DEADLY complication…
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THE CLOT CASCADE: Because the atria are not contracting effectively, blood sits and pools in the atrial appendage instead of being pushed forward. Stagnant blood activates the clotting cascade: platelets adhere, fibrin forms, and a thrombus (blood clot) develops. If this clot breaks free (becomes an embolus), it travels through the left ventricle → aorta → carotid arteries → BRAIN → blocks a cerebral artery → ISCHEMIC STROKE. A-Fib increases stroke risk by 5 times!
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DRUG CONNECTIONS:Anticoagulants (warfarin, heparin, apixaban, rivarelbaN) prevent clot formation → reduce stroke risk. Rate control drugs: beta blockers (-olol) block β1 receptors → slow AV node conduction → fewer impulses reach ventricles → controlled HR. Calcium channel blockers (diltiazem, verapamil) block Ca²⁺ entry into AV node cells → slower conduction. Digoxin enhances vagal tone at AV node. Rhythm control: amiodarone, cardioversion to restore NSR.
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LPN ACTIONS: Check pulse for irregularity. Monitor INR if on warfarin (therapeutic: 2.0-3.0). Watch for bleeding signs with ALL anticoagulants. Teach client to monitor pulse daily. REPORT irregular rhythm, HR >100 or <60, signs of stroke (FAST: Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call 911). Teach that A-Fib clients should NEVER abruptly stop anticoagulants!
🔬 Cascade #8: Ventricular Fibrillation — Why 3 Minutes of Chaos = Brain Death
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NURSE SEES: Client is UNRESPONSIVE, NO PULSE, NOT BREATHING. ECG shows completely chaotic wavy line with NO identifiable P waves, QRS complexes, or T waves. This is a medical emergency requiring immediate action.
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CELL FACTORY: Every ventricular cardiomyocyte factory is firing independently at its own random rate. The organized assembly line has collapsed into complete chaos. Each cell’s ion channels open and close without regard to its neighbors. Na⁺ rushing in here, K⁺ flooding out there, Ca²⁺ triggering random isolated twitches. No two cells contract together → the ventricle quivers like a bag of worms instead of squeezing → ZERO blood is pumped → ZERO cardiac output → ZERO oxygen to the brain.
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THE DEATH CASCADE: Brain cells begin dying within 4-6 minutes without oxygen. First the cerebral cortex (consciousness, thought) fails, then the brainstem (breathing, heart rate regulation). Irreversible brain damage occurs. Meanwhile, every other organ is also oxygen-starved: kidneys shut down, liver cells die, GI tract lining breaks down. Without CPR and defibrillation, this is fatal in minutes.
⬇ How defibrillation saves the cell factories…
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WHY DEFIBRILLATION WORKS: The massive electrical shock simultaneously depolarizes ALL cardiomyocytes at once. Every cell’s ion channels are forced open, then forced shut. This creates a brief moment where every single cell is in the same refractory state. When the refractory period ends, the SA node (the natural pacemaker) has a chance to “grab the microphone” and restart an organized rhythm. It is literally a factory-wide reset. CPR keeps blood flowing to the brain during the chaotic period to buy time for defibrillation to reset the system.
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LPN ACTIONS: Call Code/activate emergency response. Begin CPR immediately (30 compressions: 2 breaths). Assist with defibrillation as directed. Time of arrest noted. After defibrillation → immediately resume CPR × 2 minutes, then recheck rhythm. REPORT: when arrest was discovered, initial rhythm, interventions performed, response to treatment.
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Quiz 3: Dysrhythmias (20 Questions)
Score 80% to unlock Medications!
Q1
Ventricular fibrillation is fatal if not successfully terminated within:
A. 10-15 minutes
B. 3-5 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 1 hour
VF is fatal within 3-5 minutes if untreated. The chaotic electrical activity means NO effective pumping, so NO blood flow to the brain and vital organs. Treatment is CPR + immediate defibrillation.
Q2
In atrial fibrillation, the atria quiver instead of contracting effectively. This is dangerous because it can lead to:
A. Decreased appetite
B. Formation of thrombi (blood clots)
C. Immediate cardiac arrest
D. Stronger heart contractions
When the atria quiver, blood pools and stagnates, forming clots (thrombi). These clots can travel to the brain causing stroke! This is why A-fib patients often need anticoagulant therapy.
Q3
The client with PVCs should have the PHCP notified if the PVCs:
A. Occur occasionally at rest
B. Increase in frequency, are multifocal, or occur on the T wave
C. Only occur after meals
D. Resolve with rest
Notify PHCP if PVCs increase in frequency, are multifocal (different shapes from different sites), occur on the T wave (R-on-T can trigger V-Fib!), or occur in runs of V-Tach. Also notify if chest pain occurs.
Q4
Which rhythm has organized electrical activity on the monitor but NO pulse?
A. Sinus bradycardia
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)
D. Sinus tachycardia
PEA shows organized electrical activity on ECG but there is NO mechanical activity, so NO pulse exists. This is the most common dysrhythmia after defibrillation. Remember: Always check the PATIENT, not just the monitor!
Q5
Asystole (flatline) is treated with:
A. Defibrillation
B. Cardioversion
C. CPR and epinephrine (NO shock)
D. Observation only
Asystole is treated with CPR and epinephrine. You CANNOT shock a flatline! There is no electrical activity to reset. Defibrillation is only for V-Fib and pulseless V-Tach. Confirm asystole in 2 leads before calling it.
Q6
VT occurs from repetitive firing of an irritable ventricular ectopic focus at a rate of:
A. 60-100 beats/min
B. 40-60 beats/min
C. 140-250 beats/min or more
D. Less than 40 beats/min
VT fires at 140-250 bpm or more and can lead to cardiac arrest. Treatment depends on whether the client has a pulse and is hemodynamically stable. Pulseless VT = defibrillation + CPR.
Q7
Bigeminy PVCs means a PVC occurs:
A. Every third heartbeat
B. Every other heartbeat
C. Every fourth heartbeat
D. Only once
Bigeminy = PVC every OTHER heartbeat. Trigeminy = every 3rd. Quadrigeminy = every 4th. A couplet is two sequential PVCs. These patterns help describe the frequency and predictability of PVCs.
Q8
In atrial fibrillation, the atrial rate can be as high as:
A. 100-150 per minute
B. 200-300 per minute
C. 350-600 per minute
D. 60-100 per minute
In A-Fib, multiple rapid impulses depolarize in the atria at 350-600 per minute! The AV node filters most of these, so the ventricular rate is much lower. The ECG shows no definitive P waves, only fibrillatory waves.
Q9
Common causes of dysrhythmias include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Hypoxia
B. Electrolyte imbalances
C. Eating a balanced diet
D. Adverse effects of certain drugs
Common causes of dysrhythmias include hypoxia, electrolyte imbalances (especially K+ and Mg2+), drug adverse effects, and cardiac procedures. A balanced diet would not cause dysrhythmias.
Q10
A stable client with sustained V-Tach who has a pulse and no signs of decreased cardiac output will be treated with:
A. Immediate defibrillation
B. Oxygen and antidysrhythmics
C. CPR only
D. No treatment needed
A STABLE client with VT (pulse present, no symptoms of decreased output) gets oxygen and antidysrhythmics. An UNSTABLE client gets cardioversion. A PULSELESS client gets defibrillation + CPR. The treatment depends on hemodynamic stability!
Q11
The R-on-T phenomenon occurs when a PVC falls on the T wave of the preceding beat. This is dangerous because it may precipitate:
A. Sinus bradycardia
B. Ventricular fibrillation
C. Normal sinus rhythm
D. Atrial flutter
The T wave is the vulnerable period of repolarization. A PVC falling on the T wave can trigger V-Fib! This is why cardioversion must be SYNCHRONIZED to the R wave, avoiding the T wave.
Q12
Which two rhythms are SHOCKABLE (treatable with defibrillation)?
A. Asystole and PEA
B. V-Fib and Pulseless V-Tach
C. Sinus bradycardia and A-Fib
D. Normal sinus rhythm and sinus tachycardia
V-Fib and Pulseless V-Tach are the two SHOCKABLE rhythms. Asystole and PEA are NON-SHOCKABLE. You cannot shock a heart with no electrical activity (asystole) or one with organized activity but no mechanical function (PEA).
Q13
PSVT (Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia) originates in the:
A. SA node
B. AV node
C. Ventricles
D. Purkinje fibers
PSVT is a sudden, rapid onset tachycardia originating in the AV node. It often begins and ends spontaneously and may be precipitated by excitement, fatigue, caffeine, smoking, or alcohol.
Q14
Adult CPR guidelines follow which sequence?
A. ABC (airway, breathing, compressions)
B. CAB (compressions, airway, breathing)
C. BAC (breathing, airway, compressions)
D. CBA (compressions, breathing, airway)
Current AHA guidelines use CAB: Compressions first (100-120/min, 2 inches deep), then Airway (head-tilt chin-lift), then Breathing (30:2 ratio). Start compressions immediately; do not delay for airway check.
Q15
During CPR, chest compressions should be performed at a rate of:
A. 60-80 per minute
B. 100-120 per minute
C. 140-160 per minute
D. 40-60 per minute
CPR compressions: 100-120 per minute at a depth of 2 inches (5 cm). Ratio is 30 compressions to 2 ventilations for 5 cycles (about 2 minutes), then check rhythm and pulse.
Q16
A client with VF who is unconscious, has no pulse, and has no blood pressure needs IMMEDIATE:
A. Synchronized cardioversion
B. CPR and defibrillation
C. Vagal maneuvers
D. IV fluids only
VF = cardiac arrest = CPR + DEFIBRILLATION immediately! The client has no cardiac output. Every minute without defibrillation reduces survival by 7-10%.
Q17
The treatment for A-Fib typically includes anticoagulants because:
A. They speed up the heart rate
B. The quivering atria can form blood clots that may cause stroke
C. They strengthen atrial contractions
D. They improve cardiac output
In A-Fib, the atria quiver instead of contracting, causing blood to pool and form clots. These clots can travel to the brain (causing stroke) or lungs (causing PE). Anticoagulants prevent clot formation. This connection between rhythm and stroke risk is heavily tested on NCLEX!
Q18
Multifocal PVCs are identified by:
A. PVCs all looking the same
B. PVCs with different shapes because impulses come from different sites
C. PVCs occurring only at rest
D. Absence of PVCs on the ECG
Multifocal PVCs have DIFFERENT shapes because the impulses generate from different sites in the ventricles. Unifocal PVCs have the same shape (same origin). Multifocal PVCs are more dangerous and should be reported immediately!
Q19
During CPR, the carotid pulse should be checked for a maximum of:
A. 30 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 60 seconds
D. 5 minutes
Check the carotid pulse for a MAXIMUM of 10 seconds. If no pulse, begin compressions immediately. Do not waste time with prolonged pulse checks. Check rhythm and pulse every 2 minutes or after 5 cycles.
Q20
At the cell factory level, why does hypoxia cause dysrhythmias?
A. Oxygen makes the heart beat faster
B. Without oxygen, the mitochondria cannot produce ATP, and the ion channels malfunction
C. Oxygen has no effect on heart cells
D. Hypoxia only affects the lungs
At the cell factory level: no oxygen means mitochondria (power plants) cannot produce ATP. Without ATP, the ion channels (security gates) cannot properly open and close. When gates malfunction, electrical signals become chaotic, causing dysrhythmias. This is the Cell Factory explanation for why oxygen is ALWAYS a first-line treatment!
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Section 4: Antidysrhythmic Medications
Four drug classes mapped to specific ion channel receptors!
💊 The Vaughan-Williams Classification
Now we arrive at one of the most heavily tested topics on the NCLEX: cardiac medications. Antidysrhythmic drugs are classified by the Vaughan-Williams system into four classes based on WHERE they act in the cardiac conduction cycle. At the cell factory level, each class targets a different security gate, or ion channel, on the cardiomyocyte membrane. Understanding which gate each drug blocks is the key to understanding both how the drug works and what side effects to watch for.
Here is the big picture. Class I drugs are sodium channel blockers. They work at Phase 0 of the cardiac action potential by slowing how fast sodium rushes into the cell, which slows depolarization. Class II drugs are beta blockers, the drugs ending in negative olol. They block beta-1 receptors on the heart, reducing how fast the SA node fires and how forcefully the heart contracts. Class III drugs are potassium channel blockers, with amiodarone being the most important example. They work at Phase 3 by slowing potassium exit from the cell, which prolongs the time the cell needs before it can fire again. Class IV drugs are calcium channel blockers, including verapamil and diltiazem. They work at Phase 2 by blocking calcium entry through L-type calcium channels, which slows conduction through the SA and AV nodes and reduces contraction force.
There is also one drug that does not fit neatly into any class: digoxin. Digoxin works by blocking the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump on the cardiomyocyte membrane, which ultimately increases intracellular calcium and makes the heart contract more forcefully. It is classified as a cardiac glycoside rather than a Vaughan-Williams class drug, but it is arguably the most NCLEX-tested cardiac medication of all. As an LPN, your critical role is to monitor for therapeutic effects and adverse effects of all these medications and REPORT your findings to the RN or PHCP.
💊 Antidysrhythmic Drug Classes: Which Gate Does Each Class Block?
💊 Quick Reference: Vaughan-Williams Antidysrhythmic Drug Classes
💡 Each class blocks ONE specific gate on the cardiomyocyte! Class I=Na+ | Class II=Beta | Class III=K+ | Class IV=Ca2+ | Plus Digoxin (blocks Na+/K+-ATPase pump)
⚠️ DIGOXIN (Lanoxin) — High-Alert Medication!
Digoxin, also known by the brand name Lanoxin, is one of the most heavily tested medications on the entire NCLEX examination. It is classified as a cardiac glycoside and is considered a high-alert medication because even small errors in dosing can be fatal. At the cell factory level, digoxin works by blocking the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump on the cardiomyocyte membrane. When this pump is blocked, sodium accumulates inside the cell, which causes the sodium-calcium exchanger to bring in more calcium. More calcium reaches the sarcomeres, the contractile machinery, and the cell contracts more forcefully. This is why digoxin is called a positive inotrope, meaning it increases the force of contraction. It also slows conduction through the AV node, which reduces heart rate and makes it useful for controlling the ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation.
The single most critical nursing action with digoxin is to check the apical pulse for one full minute before every dose. If the heart rate is below 60 beats per minute in an adult, you must HOLD the medication and notify the PHCP immediately. The therapeutic serum level for digoxin is 0.5 to 2.0 nanograms per milliliter, with lower levels now preferred to minimize toxicity risk. Always check the potassium level too, because hypokalemia, or low potassium, dramatically increases the risk of digoxin toxicity since digoxin and potassium compete for the same binding site on the pump.
Action at the Cell Factory Level: Digoxin activates contractile proteins (sarcomeres), increasing contraction force (positive inotrope). It also slows conduction through the AV node, reducing heart rate. Used for heart failure and atrial dysrhythmias (A-Fib, SVT).
🚨 DIGOXIN TOXICITY SIGNS (NCLEX FAVORITE!):
Early signs (GI): Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
Contraindicated in ventricular dysrhythmias and 2nd or 3rd degree heart block
Older adults are MORE sensitive to digoxin toxicity!
🏭 Inside the Factory: How Digoxin Makes the Heart Pump Stronger
To truly understand digoxin, you need to step inside the cardiomyocyte factory and watch what happens at the molecular level. Every cardiomyocyte has a critical pump built into its cell membrane called the sodium-potassium ATPase pump (Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase). Under normal conditions, this pump works constantly to push sodium OUT of the cell and pull potassium IN, maintaining the proper electrical balance that allows the heart to beat rhythmically. Think of this pump as the factory’s ventilation system, constantly exchanging stale air for fresh air to keep workers comfortable.
Digoxin works by partially blocking this pump. When the Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase pump is inhibited, sodium begins to accumulate inside the cell because it cannot be pumped out efficiently. Here is where the cascade gets clever: the cell has a backup exchange system called the Na⁺/Ca²⁺ exchanger that normally trades sodium coming in for calcium going out. But now there is already too much sodium inside, so this exchanger reverses direction and calcium stays trapped inside the cell.
More calcium inside the cell means more calcium reaches the sarcomeres (the contractile machinery). More calcium on the actin-myosin filaments means STRONGER CONTRACTION. This is why digoxin is called a positive inotrope: it increases the force of contraction by increasing intracellular calcium through an indirect mechanism.
Digoxin also acts on the AV node, slowing conduction speed. This makes it useful for controlling the ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation. The combination of stronger contractions and slower rate is exactly what a failing heart needs: it pumps more effectively with each beat while using less energy.
⚠ Why Potassium Matters: Here is the critical NCLEX connection. Digoxin and potassium compete for the same binding site on the Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase pump. When potassium levels are LOW (hypokalemia), digoxin binds MORE aggressively to the pump because there is less potassium competing for the spot. This means even a normal dose of digoxin can become toxic if potassium drops. This is why you MUST monitor potassium levels in every client taking digoxin, and why clients on potassium-wasting diuretics (furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide) are at especially high risk for digoxin toxicity.
💊 Digoxin: How It Works Inside the Cardiomyocyte Factory
Digoxin blocks the Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase pump → Na⁺ accumulates → Na⁺/Ca²⁺ exchanger reverses → More Ca²⁺ in cell → STRONGER contraction. Low potassium amplifies this effect dangerously!
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Quiz 4A: Drug Classes & Digoxin (9 Questions)
Score 80% to unlock Toxicity & Other Medications!
Question 1 of 9
Class I antidysrhythmics (like quinidine) work by blocking which ion channel?
A. Calcium channels
B. Sodium channels
C. Potassium channels
D. Chloride channels
Class I drugs are sodium channel blockers. They lengthen the period during which cells cannot discharge their electrical activity, slowing conduction and making the heart less excitable.
Question 2 of 9
Before administering digoxin, the LPN should check the apical pulse for how long?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 1 full minute
D. 5 seconds
Monitor the APICAL pulse for 1 FULL MINUTE before giving digoxin. If less than 60 bpm, HOLD the medication and notify the PHCP. This is one of the most tested nursing actions on NCLEX!
Question 3 of 9
Which electrolyte imbalance increases the risk of digoxin toxicity?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypoglycemia
HYPOKALEMIA increases digoxin toxicity risk! Low potassium makes digoxin more effective (and dangerous). This is why potassium levels MUST be monitored in clients taking digoxin, especially those also on diuretics that waste potassium.
Question 4 of 9
The therapeutic digoxin level range is:
A. 5.0 to 10.0 ng/mL
B. 0.5 to 2.0 ng/mL
C. 10.0 to 20.0 ng/mL
D. 0.01 to 0.05 ng/mL
The therapeutic digoxin range is 0.5-2.0 ng/mL. However, a level on the low end is preferred to avoid toxicity. Optimal levels are 0.5-0.8 ng/mL per newer guidelines. This is a narrow therapeutic range!
Question 5 of 9
Class III antidysrhythmics (amiodarone) work by blocking which channels, making cardiac cells less excitable?
A. Sodium channels
B. Calcium channels
C. Potassium channels
D. Chloride channels
Class III drugs block potassium channels. At the cell factory level, blocking the K+ exit gate means repolarization takes longer. This makes the cells less excitable and can slow the heart rate. Amiodarone can convert A-Fib/flutter to normal sinus rhythm.
Question 6 of 9
A critical safety warning: ALL antidysrhythmic drugs can:
A. Only help, never harm
B. Cause OTHER dysrhythmias
C. Cure heart disease permanently
D. Only work on the lungs
All antidysrhythmics can cause OTHER dysrhythmias (proarrhythmic effect)! This is why all patients on these drugs need cardiac monitoring. The drugs that treat rhythm problems can also CREATE rhythm problems. Monitor ECG for any changes.
Question 7 of 9
Digoxin is contraindicated in clients with:
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Ventricular dysrhythmias and 2nd or 3rd degree heart block
C. Hypertension only
D. Heart failure
Digoxin is CONTRAINDICATED in ventricular dysrhythmias and 2nd or 3rd degree heart block. It slows conduction, which could worsen these conditions. Use with caution in renal disease, hypothyroidism, and hypokalemia.
Question 8 of 9
A positive inotropic drug increases the contractility of the heart. Which drug is a positive inotrope?
A. Propranolol (a beta blocker)
B. Digoxin
C. Diltiazem (a calcium channel blocker)
D. Quinidine (a sodium channel blocker)
Digoxin is a positive inotrope. It activates contractile proteins in the heart muscle, increasing contraction force. Beta blockers and CCBs are negative inotropes (they decrease contractility to reduce workload).
Question 9 of 9
Patients taking digoxin should eat foods high in potassium such as:
A. White bread and pasta
B. Fresh and dried fruits, fruit juices, vegetables, and potatoes
C. Red meat only
D. Caffeinated beverages
Fresh and dried fruits, fruit juices, vegetables, and potatoes are high in potassium. Maintaining normal potassium levels helps prevent digoxin toxicity. Bananas and oranges are classic potassium-rich foods!
🚨
Section 4B: Toxicity Recognition & Drug Safety
Digoxin toxicity cascade, beta blockers, CCBs, amiodarone, and LPN scope
🚨 Recognizing Digoxin Toxicity: The Warning Signs Appear in a Specific Order
One of the most heavily tested NCLEX topics is recognizing digoxin toxicity. The key to this question type is understanding that the symptoms appear in a predictable order, which helps you identify toxicity before it becomes life-threatening. The GI symptoms always appear FIRST, because the GI tract is extremely sensitive to digoxin. The client will complain of loss of appetite (anorexia), nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Many students miss this cue because they attribute nausea to other causes, but on NCLEX, any client taking digoxin who develops GI symptoms should be suspected of toxicity until proven otherwise.
The cardiac symptoms appear next: bradycardia (heart rate dropping below 60 bpm), new onset of heart block, and new or worsening PVCs. This is why the #1 nursing action before giving digoxin is to check the apical pulse for one full minute. If the heart rate is below 60 bpm, HOLD the dose and notify the PHCP.
The visual disturbances are the classic textbook finding: yellow-green halos around lights, blurred vision, diplopia (double vision), and photophobia. While these are the most memorable symptoms, they actually appear after the GI and cardiac signs. Finally, CNS symptoms like drowsiness, confusion, and fatigue represent severe toxicity.
The therapeutic range for digoxin is 0.5 to 2.0 ng/mL, with the lower end now preferred to minimize toxicity risk. The antidote for severe toxicity is Digoxin Immune Fab (Digibind). Older adults are at particularly high risk because of decreased renal function, and the maximum dose is often reduced to 0.125 mg daily in elderly clients.
🚨 Digoxin Toxicity: Symptom Progression Hierarchy
Digoxin toxicity signs appear in order: GI (first) → Cardiac → Visual (yellow-green halos) → CNS (severe). Therapeutic range: 0.5–2.0 ng/mL. Always check apical pulse × 1 full minute and monitor K⁺ levels!
⚠️ Digoxin (Lanoxin) Quick Reference Card
Therapeutic Level
• 0.5–2.0 ng/mL (some sources: target 0.5–0.8 for HF)
• Hypokalemia! (K+ and digoxin compete for same binding site) • Hypomagnesemia • Hypercalcemia • Renal impairment (digoxin is renally excreted)
Antidote
• Digoxin immune Fab (Digibind)
💡 Memory: "Dig digs into the pump" — GI hits FIRST, then neuro, then eyes, then heart. Always check pulse + potassium!
Beta blockers end in -olol: Propranolol, metoprolol, atenolol, acebutolol, sotalol
ACE inhibitors end in -pril: Lisinopril, enalapril, captopril (covered in Part 3!)
ARBs end in -sartan: Losartan, valsartan, irbesartan (covered in Part 3!)
"Beta-1, ONE heart. Beta-2, TWO lungs."
Digoxin toxicity signs: "Dig makes you DIG your food less (anorexia), see yellow, and slow your heart."
💊 Class II: Beta Blockers — Key Nursing Points
Beta blockers are among the most commonly prescribed cardiac medications. They work at the cell factory level by blocking beta-1 adrenergic receptors on the cardiomyocyte membrane. Normally, when the sympathetic nervous system releases norepinephrine as part of the fight-or-flight response, it binds to these beta-1 receptors and tells the heart to beat faster and harder. Beta blockers sit in those receptor slots like a key that fits the lock but does not turn, preventing norepinephrine from activating the receptor. The result is a slower heart rate, reduced contractility, and lower blood pressure. You can identify beta blockers by the suffix negative olol, as in metoprolol, propranolol, atenolol, and sotalol.
There is an important distinction between selective and nonselective beta blockers. Selective beta blockers like metoprolol and atenolol block only beta-1 receptors in the heart. Nonselective beta blockers like propranolol block both beta-1 in the heart AND beta-2 in the lungs. Remember the memory trick: beta-1, one heart, beta-2, two lungs. Blocking beta-2 receptors causes bronchoconstriction, which can trigger asthma attacks or worsen COPD. This is why nonselective beta blockers must be used with extreme caution in patients with respiratory disease. At the cell factory level, beta-2 receptors in the bronchial smooth muscle normally cause relaxation and open airways when stimulated. Blocking these receptors removes that relaxation, and the airways constrict.
Here are the critical nursing considerations you must know for NCLEX:
Monitor heart rate and BP. Hold if HR less than 60 or systolic BP less than 90 mmHg.
DO NOT STOP ABRUPTLY! Can cause rebound hypertension, rebound tachycardia, or anginal attack.
Can mask early signs of hypoglycemia (tachycardia) in diabetic clients on insulin.
Can cause depression, fatigue, dizziness, nightmares.
Avoid OTC cold medications and nasal decongestants.
Teach client to change positions slowly (orthostatic hypotension).
Monitor for signs of heart failure or worsening heart failure.
Check for respiratory distress, wheezing, dyspnea (nonselective beta blockers block beta-2 in lungs).
💊 Class IV: Calcium Channel Blockers — Key Nursing Points
Calcium channel blockers work at Phase 2 of the cardiac action potential, the plateau phase, by blocking L-type calcium channels on the cardiomyocyte membrane. Remember from our cell factory model that calcium entry through these channels is what triggers the sarcomeres to contract. By blocking calcium entry, these drugs reduce both the force of contraction and the speed of conduction through the SA and AV nodes. The two most important calcium channel blockers for dysrhythmias are verapamil and diltiazem, which primarily target cardiac cells. Other calcium channel blockers like amlodipine and nifedipine target blood vessel smooth muscle more than the heart and are used mainly for hypertension.
A critical NCLEX point is that calcium channel blockers should be avoided in patients with heart failure because they reduce the force of contraction, and a failing heart cannot afford to pump even more weakly. Fluid retention is a common side effect that can worsen heart failure. You should also remember the grapefruit warning: grapefruit and grapefruit juice inhibit an enzyme in the gut that normally breaks down these drugs, allowing dangerously high drug levels to build up. Here are the key nursing considerations:
Monitor vital signs. Report HR less than 60 or systolic BP less than 90 mmHg.
Avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice (increases toxicity risk!).
Side effects: bradycardia, hypotension, peripheral edema, constipation, headache, dizziness, flushing.
AVOID in patients with heart failure (potential for fluid retention!).
Do not crush or chew sustained-release tablets.
Avoid alcohol (causes hypotension).
Be alert for Stevens-Johnson syndrome (life-threatening skin condition with skin lesions, fever, aching joints).
Teach client to avoid all OTC drugs without checking with provider.
⚠️ Amiodarone (Cordarone) — Class III Special Considerations
Amiodarone is the most powerful and most dangerous antidysrhythmic drug available, and it is frequently tested on the NCLEX. It is classified as a Class III potassium channel blocker, but it is unique because it actually has properties of all four Vaughan-Williams classes. At the cell factory level, its primary action is to block potassium channels during Phase 3 of the action potential. By slowing potassium exit from the cell, amiodarone prolongs the refractory period, which is the time the cardiomyocyte must wait before it can fire again. This prevents the rapid, chaotic firing that occurs in life-threatening dysrhythmias like ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation.
Amiodarone is so powerful that it is often initiated only in a critical care setting. It has a remarkably long half-life of 40 to 55 days, meaning the drug stays in the body for weeks to months after it is discontinued. This extended presence means side effects may not appear for days or weeks after starting the drug, and they persist long after the drug is stopped. The most serious adverse effect is pulmonary toxicity, which can cause irreversible lung damage. Amiodarone also deposits in the skin and eyes over time, causing photosensitivity, a bluish discoloration of the face and neck, and corneal microdeposits that require regular eye examinations. Here are the specific nursing considerations:
Very powerful! Often given only in critical care units initially.
Side effects: photosensitivity, nausea, vomiting, dizziness, fatigue, hypotension.
Monitor respiratory status! Can cause pulmonary complications.
Teach patients to wear dark glasses and protective clothing (light sensitivity).
Long-term use may cause bluish discoloration of face, neck, or arms (reversible).
Schedule eye examinations every 6 to 12 months (corneal microdeposits).
Side effects may not appear until days or weeks after starting the drug.
🔬 Connecting the Cues: Medication Cascades
🔬 Cascade #9: Digoxin Toxicity — Why the GI Tract Warns You First
👁
NURSE SEES (in order): (1) GI: anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea; (2) Cardiac: bradycardia (<60), new heart block, PVCs, bigeminy; (3) Visual: yellow-green halos around lights, blurred vision; (4) CNS: drowsiness, confusion, fatigue. Lab: digoxin level > 2.0 ng/mL or K⁺ < 3.5 mEq/L.
⬇ Why does GI always come first?
🏭
CELL FACTORY: Digoxin blocks Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase pumps in ALL cells that have them, not just heart cells. The GI tract’s smooth muscle cells and the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) in the brainstem are extremely sensitive to this pump inhibition. When digoxin reaches toxic levels, these cells accumulate too much Na⁺ and Ca²⁺ first because they have high metabolic activity and rapid drug exposure via the blood supply. The CTZ triggers the vomiting center → nausea/vomiting. GI smooth muscle becomes hyperactive → diarrhea. Only at HIGHER levels does the heart become symptomatic because cardiac tissue has more reserve capacity.
⬇ The potassium connection is CRITICAL…
⚠️
THE K⁺ + DIGOXIN DEATH TRAP: Client takes furosemide (loop diuretic) → kidneys excrete K⁺ → K⁺ drops (hypokalemia) → less K⁺ competing for the Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase binding site → digoxin binds MORE aggressively → a normal dose becomes toxic. This is the #1 NCLEX scenario: client on BOTH digoxin AND a potassium-wasting diuretic who develops nausea and bradycardia. The answer is ALWAYS: check the K⁺ level! Also check the digoxin level, hold the dose, notify PHCP.
⬇
💜
LPN PROTOCOL: (1) Check apical pulse × 1 full minute BEFORE every dose. HOLD if HR < 60. (2) Check K⁺ level (normal 3.5-5.0). (3) Check digoxin level (therapeutic 0.5-2.0 ng/mL). (4) Monitor for GI symptoms EVERY visit. (5) Teach client to eat potassium-rich foods: bananas, oranges, potatoes, spinach, raisins. (6) REPORT any toxicity signs immediately. (7) Antidote for severe toxicity: Digoxin Immune Fab (Digibind).
🔬 Cascade #10: Beta Blockers — Every Side Effect Traces Back to One Receptor
👁
NURSE SEES: Bradycardia, hypotension, fatigue, dizziness, cold extremities, weight gain, possible wheezing (if non-selective), masking of hypoglycemia symptoms in diabetics, depression. Client may say “I feel tired all the time” or “my feet are always cold.”
⬇ Trace EVERY symptom back to the receptor…
🏭
CELL FACTORY: Beta blockers sit on the β1 receptor (the “gas pedal” security gate on the cardiomyocyte membrane) and BLOCK norepinephrine from binding. When norepinephrine cannot reach the gate:
• SA node: Fires slower → ↓ HR (bradycardia)
• AV node: Conducts slower → longer PR interval
• Myocardial cells: Less Ca²⁺ enters → weaker contraction → ↓ cardiac output → ↓ BP
• Kidney juxtaglomerular cells: Less renin released → less RAAS activation → ↓ BP further
• Peripheral vessels: Less sympathetic drive → less vasoconstriction → cold extremities
Non-selective beta blockers ALSO block β2 receptors in the lungs → bronchoconstriction → CONTRAINDICATED in asthma!
⬇
⚠️
CRITICAL WARNINGS: (1) NEVER stop beta blockers abruptly! Sudden withdrawal causes rebound tachycardia and hypertension because the β1 receptors have been upregulated (more receptors created) during treatment. When the blocker is removed, the sudden flood of norepinephrine hitting all those extra receptors causes a dangerous surge. TAPER gradually. (2) Beta blockers mask tachycardia in hypoglycemia → diabetics cannot feel their blood sugar dropping → teach to monitor blood glucose regularly.
⬇
💜
LPN ACTIONS: Check apical pulse and BP before EVERY dose. Hold and REPORT if HR < 60 or SBP < 90. Teach: rise slowly (orthostatic hypotension), do not skip doses, NEVER stop abruptly, report weight gain >2 lbs/day, report dizziness or wheezing. Monitor diabetic clients’ glucose closely. REPORT fatigue, depression, exercise intolerance to PHCP.
💜 LPN Scope: Cardiac Medications
LPNs monitor for therapeutic and adverse effects of cardiac medications and REPORT findings. Always check apical pulse before giving digoxin or beta blockers. ALWAYS check state-specific regulations for IV medication administration. Report ANY significant changes in heart rate or blood pressure to the RN or PHCP immediately.
📝
Quiz 4B: Toxicity & Drug Safety (11 Questions)
Score 80% to unlock Management!
Question 1 of 11
Early signs of digoxin toxicity include:
A. Hypertension and tachycardia
B. Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting
C. Increased appetite and weight gain
D. Fever and chills
Early digoxin toxicity presents as GI symptoms: anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea. Then heart rate abnormalities and visual disturbances (yellow-green halos, blurred vision) appear. GI symptoms come FIRST!
Question 2 of 11
Beta blockers can be identified by the suffix:
A. -pril
B. -sartan
C. -olol
D. -statin
Beta blockers end in -olol: propranolol, metoprolol, atenolol, acebutolol, sotalol. ACE inhibitors end in -pril. ARBs end in -sartan. Statins end in -statin. Learning suffixes is a powerful NCLEX strategy!
Question 3 of 11
Why must beta blockers NOT be stopped abruptly?
A. The medication tastes bad if split
B. Rebound hypertension, rebound tachycardia, or anginal attack can occur
C. It causes immediate weight loss
D. No reason, they can be stopped anytime
Abruptly stopping beta blockers can cause dangerous rebound effects: hypertension, tachycardia, or anginal attack. The body has adapted to the drug, and suddenly removing it causes an overshoot response. Always taper gradually!
Question 4 of 11
Calcium channel blockers should be avoided in patients with heart failure because:
A. They increase heart rate too much
B. They can cause fluid retention
C. They cure heart failure too quickly
D. They have no cardiac effects
Calcium channel blockers can cause fluid retention, which worsens heart failure. They also decrease contractility (negative inotropic effect), further reducing the heart's ability to pump. CCBs should be used with caution in HF, bradycardia, or AV block.
Question 5 of 11
Patients taking amiodarone should be taught to:
A. Increase sun exposure to boost vitamin D
B. Wear dark glasses and protective clothing due to photosensitivity
C. Stop the drug if side effects occur
D. Avoid all dairy products
Amiodarone causes photosensitivity. Patients should wear dark glasses and protective clothing and use sunscreen. They also need eye exams every 6-12 months for corneal deposits. Long-term use may cause bluish skin discoloration (reversible).
Question 6 of 11
The antidote for severe digoxin toxicity is:
A. Naloxone
B. Vitamin K
C. Digoxin Immune Fab
D. Protamine sulfate
Digoxin Immune Fab is the antidote for extreme digoxin toxicity. Naloxone reverses opioids. Vitamin K reverses warfarin. Protamine sulfate reverses heparin. Know your antidotes for NCLEX!
Question 7 of 11
A patient taking a beta blocker is also diabetic on insulin. The nurse should teach the patient that beta blockers can:
A. Cure diabetes
B. Mask early signs of hypoglycemia such as tachycardia
C. Increase blood sugar to dangerous levels
D. Have no interaction with insulin
Beta blockers can MASK the early signs of hypoglycemia, especially tachycardia and nervousness (the body's fight-or-flight response to low sugar). The patient should monitor blood glucose more frequently and watch for other symptoms like sweating and confusion.
Question 8 of 11
Patients taking calcium channel blockers should avoid grapefruit juice because it can:
A. Decrease the drug effectiveness
B. Increase the risk of toxicity
C. Cause kidney failure
D. Have no interaction
Grapefruit juice can increase the risk of CCB toxicity by inhibiting liver enzymes that metabolize the drug. This leads to higher drug levels in the blood. Always teach patients to avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice!
Question 9 of 11
Digoxin visual disturbances include all EXCEPT:
A. Yellow-green halos around lights
B. Blurred vision
C. Improved night vision
D. Photophobia
Digoxin toxicity visual disturbances include diplopia, blurred vision, yellow-green halos, and photophobia. IMPROVED vision is NOT a sign of toxicity. If a patient reports seeing yellow-green halos, suspect digoxin toxicity immediately!
Question 10 of 11
Older adults are at particular risk for digoxin toxicity because:
A. They tend to eat more potassium-rich foods
B. They have decreased renal function and are more sensitive to the drug
C. They metabolize drugs faster
D. They never develop toxicity
Older adults are more sensitive to digoxin toxicity due to decreased renal function (digoxin is excreted by kidneys), decreased lean body mass, dehydration risk, and polypharmacy. Maximum dose in older adults is often 0.125 mg daily.
Question 11 of 11
Class II beta blockers reduce sympathetic stimulation of the heart by blocking beta-1 receptors. At the cell factory level, this means:
A. More norepinephrine reaches the heart
B. The gas pedal (sympathetic) response is blocked, decreasing heart rate and contractility
C. Calcium floods into the cell
D. Sodium channels open wider
Beta blockers block the beta-1 receptor (the gas pedal gate). Without this gate responding to norepinephrine, the heart rate decreases, contractility decreases, and the heart workload is reduced. This is like taking your foot off the gas pedal!
🚑
Section 5: Dysrhythmia Management
Cardioversion, Defibrillation, Pacemakers, and CPR
🔨 Vagal Maneuvers
Vagal maneuvers are physical techniques that stimulate the vagus nerve, which is the main parasympathetic nerve controlling the heart. Remember from our cell factory model that the parasympathetic system is the brake pedal. When the vagus nerve is stimulated, it releases the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, which acts on the SA and AV nodes to slow the heart rate and decrease conduction speed. This makes vagal maneuvers useful for terminating supraventricular tachydysrhythmias, which are fast rhythms that originate above the ventricles. The two main vagal maneuvers are carotid sinus massage and the Valsalva maneuver. During carotid sinus massage, the PHCP massages over ONE carotid artery while the client’s head is turned away from the side being massaged. It is critical to never massage both carotid arteries simultaneously because this could severely reduce blood flow to the brain. The client must be on a cardiac monitor, and a defibrillator and resuscitative equipment must be immediately available in case the maneuver triggers an excessive bradycardia response.
Carotid Sinus Massage:
PHCP turns client's head away from the side being massaged. Massages over ONE carotid artery. Client must be on a cardiac monitor. Have defibrillator and resuscitative equipment available.
Valsalva Maneuver:
PHCP instructs the client to bear down or induces a gag reflex to stimulate vagal response. Monitor HR, rhythm, and BP. Record ECG strips before, during, and after.
⚡ Cardioversion: Synchronized Countershock
Cardioversion uses synchronized countershock to convert an undesirable rhythm to a stable rhythm. At the cell factory level, here is what is happening: the electrical signal is being delivered in a carefully timed burst that coincides with the R wave of the ECG. The defibrillator literally watches the ECG and waits for the R wave before firing. Why does this timing matter so much? Because the T wave represents the vulnerable period when the ventricular cardiomyocytes are in the middle of repolarization. Their potassium channels are open and their electrical state is unstable. If a shock hits during the T wave, it could trigger every cardiomyocyte to fire chaotically, converting an organized rhythm into deadly ventricular fibrillation. Synchronization prevents this by ensuring the shock arrives when the cells are in a stable electrical state.
Cardioversion can be performed as an elective procedure for stable tachydysrhythmias that are resistant to medication, or as an emergency procedure for hemodynamically unstable rhythms. When it is performed electively for atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter, the client must receive anticoagulant therapy for four to six weeks beforehand, and a transesophageal echocardiogram is performed to rule out clots in the atria. The energy used in cardioversion is lower than in defibrillation. Safety is paramount during the procedure: oxygen must be stopped to prevent fire, the client's skin must be clean and dry, and the nurse must verify three times that absolutely no one is touching the bed or the client before the shock is delivered. Post-procedure, the priority nursing action is airway and breathing monitoring.
Key Points:
Uses LOWER energy than defibrillation.
Can be elective (for stable tachydysrhythmias) or emergent (for unstable VT or SVT).
Elective A-Fib/Flutter: Client receives anticoagulant therapy for 4-6 weeks BEFORE and TEE to rule out clots.
If elective, hold digoxin 48 hours before to prevent postcardioversion ventricular irritability.
STOP oxygen during procedure (fire hazard!).
Ensure NO ONE is touching the bed or client! (Check 3 times!)
Post-procedure PRIORITY: Airway and breathing data collection!
⚡ Defibrillation: Asynchronous Countershock
Defibrillation is an asynchronous countershock used exclusively for two pulseless rhythms: ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia. These are the only two shockable rhythms, and remembering this is a critical NCLEX skill. Unlike cardioversion, defibrillation is NOT synchronized to the R wave, and here is why: in ventricular fibrillation, the cardiomyocytes are firing in complete chaos with no organized rhythm at all. There is no identifiable R wave to synchronize to. The goal of the shock is to simultaneously depolarize every single cardiomyocyte in the heart at once, essentially resetting the entire electrical system to zero. The hope is that the SA node will then resume its role as the master pacemaker and restart an organized rhythm. Think of it like rebooting a factory’s entire computer system when every machine is running haywire. You shut everything down at once and let the master controller boot up fresh.
The energy used is higher than cardioversion, typically 120 to 200 joules with a biphasic defibrillator or 360 joules with a monophasic unit. After delivering one shock, CPR must be immediately resumed for 2 minutes, which is 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths, before rechecking the rhythm. The same safety rules apply: stop oxygen to prevent fire, ensure no one is touching the bed or client, and clear three times before delivering the shock.
Energy: 120-200 joules (biphasic) or 360 joules (monophasic).
After one shock, immediately resume CPR for 2 minutes (5 cycles). Then recheck rhythm.
Stop oxygen! Ensure no one is touching bed or client!
Pad placement: One at 3rd intercostal space right of sternum. Other at 5th intercostal space left midaxillary line. Avoid breast tissue!
📌 Where Do the Pads Go? Visualizing Defibrillator Placement
When a client is in ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia, every second counts. The defibrillator pads must be placed in the correct position so the electrical current travels directly through the heart muscle. Think of it this way: you are creating a pathway for electricity to flow between the two pads, and the heart needs to sit right in the middle of that path.
The anterior pad (Pad 1) is placed at the 3rd intercostal space to the RIGHT of the sternum. The lateral pad (Pad 2) is placed at the 5th intercostal space at the LEFT midaxillary line. This diagonal placement ensures the electrical current crosses through the bulk of the ventricular muscle mass.
Critical safety reminders: Apply firm pressure of at least 25 pounds to ensure good skin contact. Avoid placing pads over breast tissue because fat does not conduct electricity well. Remove any nitroglycerin patches (they can cause burns). Make sure the chest is dry. And most importantly: STOP oxygen delivery during the shock because oxygen supports combustion and creates a fire hazard! Ensure nobody is touching the bed or the client before firing. Announce “Clear!” and visually verify three times: “I am clear, you are clear, everybody is clear.”
📌 Defibrillator Pad Placement on the Chest
Correct pad placement creates an electrical pathway directly through the heart. The anterior-lateral position is the standard for adult defibrillation.
🔌 Pacemakers
A pacemaker is an electronic device that provides electrical stimulation to maintain heart rate when the client's intrinsic pacemaker, the SA node, fails to provide an adequate rhythm. At the cell factory level, the pacemaker sends a tiny electrical impulse through a wire, called a lead, directly to the cardiomyocyte factories. This impulse mimics what the SA node normally does: it opens the fast sodium channels in nearby cells, triggering depolarization and contraction. On the ECG, you can see pacemaker activity as a small vertical spike that appears just before the P wave or QRS complex, depending on which chamber is being paced.
There are several types of pacemakers. A synchronous or demand pacemaker is the most commonly used. It senses the heart's own rhythm and only fires when the intrinsic rate drops below a preset rate, acting as a safety net for bradycardia. An asynchronous or fixed-rate pacemaker paces at a preset rate regardless of what the heart is doing on its own, and it is used when the client is asystolic or profoundly bradycardic with no intrinsic rhythm to sense. Temporary pacemakers can be transcutaneous, using external pads on the chest, or transvenous, using a wire threaded through a vein into the heart. Permanent pacemakers have a generator implanted under the skin below the clavicle with leads threaded through the subclavian vein into the right atrium and ventricle. The term capture means that the pacemaker spike is followed by the expected waveform, meaning the electrical stimulus successfully triggered a contraction. Failure to capture means the spike appears but no contraction follows, which is a dangerous malfunction that must be reported immediately.
Key nursing considerations and client teaching:
Synchronous (demand): Senses rhythm and paces ONLY if rate falls below set rate. Most common.
Asynchronous (fixed rate): Paces at preset rate regardless of intrinsic rhythm. Used when asystolic or profoundly bradycardic.
Temporary: Transcutaneous (external pads) or transvenous (wire through vein).
Permanent: Generator implanted under clavicle. Leads through subclavian vein to right heart.
Pacemaker Spikes on ECG:
A spike before a P wave = atrium is being paced.
A spike before a QRS = ventricle is being paced.
"Capture" = spike followed by the appropriate waveform (atrial or ventricular).
Client Education:
Learn programmed rate. Report signs of battery failure.
Report fever, redness, swelling, or drainage from insertion site.
Report dizziness, weakness, fatigue, ankle swelling, chest pain, or shortness of breath.
Keep ID card in wallet. Wear MedicAlert bracelet.
Take pulse daily. Avoid contact sports. Wear loose clothing over generator.
Inform all providers and airport security. Use cell phone on opposite side.
Avoid electromagnetic fields directly over the device.
Most electrical appliances are safe; avoid operating them directly over pacemaker site.
• Monitor incision site • Avoid MRI (unless MRI-compatible) • Carry ID card • Avoid strong magnets
Transcutaneous (TCP)
• Pads on chest • External, non-invasive • PAINFUL for patient
• Emergency ONLY • Hemodynamically unstable bradycardia • Temporary until transvenous available
• Sedation/analgesia as ordered • Verify capture (spike + QRS) • Monitor VS closely
💜 LPN Scope: LPNs monitor pacemaker function, report malfunctions, reinforce teaching. LPNs do NOT adjust pacemaker settings.
🔌 Seeing the Pacemaker in Action: Reading Pacemaker Spikes on ECG
When a pacemaker fires, it creates a tiny vertical line on the ECG tracing called a pacemaker spike. This spike tells you the pacemaker just sent an electrical impulse to stimulate the heart. The critical question for the LPN is: did the heart actually respond?
If a spike appears right before a P wave, it means the pacemaker is stimulating the atrium. If a spike appears right before a QRS complex, the pacemaker is stimulating the ventricle. Some pacemakers stimulate both chambers, and you will see two spikes on each complex: one before the P wave and one before the QRS.
The term “capture” means the pacemaker spike is followed by the appropriate waveform, meaning the heart muscle actually contracted in response to the electrical stimulus. Failure to capture is a serious problem: you see the spike but NO waveform follows. This means the pacemaker is firing but the heart is not responding. At the cell factory level, this is like a manager giving an order on the intercom but none of the workers can hear it. This must be REPORTED IMMEDIATELY because the client may not be getting adequate cardiac output.
💜 LPN Scope: LPNs do not adjust pacemaker settings, but they MUST be able to recognize whether the pacemaker is capturing properly. If the heart rate drops below the programmed rate, or if spikes appear without waveforms, this is a critical finding that requires immediate reporting to the RN or PHCP.
🔌 Pacemaker Spike Patterns on ECG
Look for the spike! Spike + waveform = capture (working). Spike + nothing = failure to capture (EMERGENCY). LPNs must recognize this pattern and report immediately.
💡 Key Comparison: Cardioversion vs Defibrillation
Feature
Cardioversion
Defibrillation
Synchronized?
YES (to R wave)
NO (asynchronous)
Energy Level
Lower
Higher (120-200J biphasic)
Used For
Stable tachycardias, A-Fib/Flutter
V-Fib, Pulseless V-Tach
Client Has Pulse?
Usually YES
NO pulse!
Planned or Emergency?
Can be either
Always emergency
⚡ Seeing the Difference: Synchronized vs Asynchronous Shock
Students often confuse cardioversion and defibrillation because both deliver an electrical shock to the heart. The difference comes down to timing and purpose. In cardioversion, the defibrillator machine watches the ECG and waits for the R wave before delivering the shock. This “synchronization” ensures the shock avoids the T wave, which is the vulnerable period when shocking could trigger ventricular fibrillation. The client usually still has an organized rhythm and a pulse, and the goal is to reset that rhythm to normal sinus.
In defibrillation, there is NO synchronization because the heart has no organized rhythm to synchronize to. Ventricular fibrillation is pure chaos, so the machine fires immediately without waiting. The goal is to stun all the chaotic electrical activity at once, giving the SA node a chance to restart as the primary pacemaker.
At the cell factory level, think of it this way: cardioversion is like a factory manager clapping loudly to get a disorganized but still functioning team back on schedule. The manager waits for the right moment to clap so workers do not drop fragile items (avoiding the T wave). Defibrillation is like pulling the fire alarm in a factory that has descended into complete pandemonium. There is no “right moment” because everything is already in chaos, so you just hit the alarm immediately and hope everyone resets.
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Quiz 5A: Interventions (9 Questions)
Score 80% to unlock Comparisons & Cascades!
Question 1 of 9
Cardioversion is SYNCHRONIZED to which part of the ECG waveform?
A. The T wave
B. The R wave
C. The P wave
D. The U wave
Cardioversion is synchronized to the R wave to AVOID the T wave (vulnerable period). Discharging during the T wave could cause V-Fib, making the situation worse!
Question 2 of 9
Before cardioversion or defibrillation, the nurse should ensure that which supply is STOPPED?
A. IV fluids
B. Oxygen
C. Cardiac monitor
D. Blood pressure cuff
STOP OXYGEN before delivering any countershock to avoid the hazard of FIRE! Oxygen supports combustion. Also ensure no one is touching the bed or the client.
Question 3 of 9
For elective cardioversion of A-Fib, the client typically receives anticoagulant therapy for how long before the procedure?
A. 24 hours
B. 4-6 weeks
C. 1 year
D. No anticoagulation needed
4-6 weeks of anticoagulant therapy before elective cardioversion for A-Fib/Flutter, plus a TEE to rule out clots. The quivering atria may have formed clots, and cardioversion could dislodge them, causing stroke!
Question 4 of 9
Defibrillation is used ONLY for which two rhythms?
A. Sinus bradycardia and A-Fib
B. V-Fib and Pulseless V-Tach
C. Asystole and PEA
D. Normal sinus rhythm and sinus tachycardia
Defibrillation is for V-Fib and Pulseless V-Tach ONLY. Asystole and PEA are treated with CPR + epinephrine (no shock). Shocking a flatline does nothing because there is no electrical activity to reset.
Question 5 of 9
After cardioversion, the PRIORITY data collection is:
A. Blood glucose level
B. Ability of the client to maintain airway and breathing
C. Skin color on the extremities
D. Appetite evaluation
AIRWAY and BREATHING are ALWAYS the priority after cardioversion. Use ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation). Then resume oxygen, monitor VS, LOC, cardiac rhythm, and check for skin burns from paddles.
Question 6 of 9
If an elective cardioversion is planned, digoxin should be held for how many hours before the procedure?
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 72 hours
Hold digoxin 48 hours before elective cardioversion to prevent postcardioversion ventricular irritability. Digoxin sensitizes the heart to electrical stimulation, which could cause dangerous dysrhythmias during the procedure.
Question 7 of 9
Vagal maneuvers are used to terminate which type of dysrhythmia?
A. Ventricular fibrillation
B. Supraventricular tachydysrhythmia
C. Asystole
D. Third-degree heart block
Vagal maneuvers (carotid sinus massage, Valsalva) stimulate the parasympathetic nervous system (the brake pedal) to terminate supraventricular tachydysrhythmias. They work by slowing conduction through the AV node.
Question 8 of 9
Defibrillator pad placement: the anterior pad is placed at the:
A. Right leg
B. Third intercostal space to the right of the sternum
C. Forehead
D. Left shoulder blade
One pad at the 3rd intercostal space RIGHT of sternum, the other at the 5th intercostal space LEFT midaxillary line. Avoid breast tissue. Apply firm pressure (at least 25 lbs). Ensure good skin contact.
Question 9 of 9
Indications of successful cardioversion include all EXCEPT:
A. Conversion to sinus rhythm
B. Strong peripheral pulses
C. Continued VF on the monitor
D. Adequate blood pressure and urine output
Successful cardioversion shows conversion to sinus rhythm, strong pulses, adequate BP, and adequate urine output. Continued VF means the cardioversion was NOT successful and further intervention is needed.
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Section 5B: Post-Shock Recovery & Cascades
What happens to cardiomyocytes after defibrillation, anticoagulant cascades, and LPN scope
🔬 Connecting the Cues: Management Cascades
🔬 Cascade #11: Post-Defibrillation — What the Cells Go Through After the Shock
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NURSE MONITORS AFTER ROSC (Return of Spontaneous Circulation): Continuous ECG (watch for re-arrest). Vital signs every 5 minutes initially. Level of consciousness (GCS). Urine output (>30 mL/hr = kidneys recovering). Skin color and temperature. 12-lead ECG. Cardiac enzymes (troponin) to evaluate myocardial damage. Arterial blood gases. Targeted temperature management may be ordered.
⬇ What just happened at the cell level?
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CELL FACTORY: The cardiomyocyte factories just survived a catastrophic power failure followed by an emergency reboot. During V-Fib, the cells were oxygen-starved (ischemic). During CPR, they received only 25-30% of normal blood flow. After defibrillation resets the rhythm, the cells face a new challenge: reperfusion injury. When oxygen suddenly floods back into ischemic cells, it generates reactive oxygen species (free radicals) that damage cell membranes, mitochondria, and DNA. The Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase pumps are depleted of ATP and slow to restart. Ion gradients are unstable. The cell membrane may be leaky. This is why re-arrest is common in the first hours after successful defibrillation — the cellular machinery is fragile.
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⚠️
BRAIN CELL DAMAGE: Even if the heart restarts, the brain cells (neurons) may have suffered permanent damage from the period of no blood flow. Neurons are the most sensitive cells to oxygen deprivation in the entire body because they have almost no glycogen reserve and cannot perform anaerobic metabolism effectively. If CPR was delayed or inadequate, the client may recover a heartbeat but show signs of anoxic brain injury: altered consciousness, seizures, or coma. This is why EARLY CPR and EARLY defibrillation are the two most important predictors of neurological outcome.
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LPN ACTIONS POST-CODE: Maintain continuous monitoring. Document exact timeline of events (discovery time, CPR start, first shock, ROSC time). Monitor neurological status frequently (pupils, responsiveness, commands). Monitor I&O closely. Watch for skin burns at defibrillator pad sites. REPORT any rhythm changes immediately. Support the family emotionally. Ensure all medications and dosages given during the code are documented.
🔬 Cascade #12: Anticoagulant Therapy — The Clotting Cascade and Where Each Drug Cuts It
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WHY ARE CARDIAC CLIENTS ON BLOOD THINNERS? A-Fib (blood pools in quivering atria → clots), mechanical heart valves (foreign surface activates clotting), post-MI (damaged vessel wall activates clotting), DVT prevention after surgery. The goal: prevent pathological clots WITHOUT causing dangerous bleeding.
⬇ The clotting cascade at the cell level…
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CELL FACTORY (Clotting Cascade): When a blood vessel is injured, platelets (tiny cell fragments) rush to the site and stick together (aggregation). Simultaneously, a chain reaction of clotting factors (proteins made by liver cell factories) activates in sequence: each factor activates the next like dominos falling. The final step converts fibrinogen → fibrin, which forms a mesh net that traps red blood cells → solid clot. The liver needs Vitamin K to manufacture clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.
⬇ Where each drug intervenes (✂️)…
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DRUG INTERVENTION MAP:
✂️ Aspirin → Blocks thromboxane A2 in platelets → platelets cannot aggregate. Irreversible for the life of the platelet (7-10 days). Lab: bleeding time. No specific antidote.
✂️ Heparin (IV/SubQ) → Activates antithrombin III → rapidly inactivates thrombin and Factor Xa → FAST acting (minutes). Lab: aPTT (1.5-2.5× control). Antidote: protamine sulfate.
✂️ Warfarin (oral) → Blocks Vitamin K in liver → liver cannot make clotting factors II, VII, IX, X → SLOW onset (3-5 days). Lab: PT/INR (goal INR 2.0-3.0). Antidote: Vitamin K (phytonadione).
✂️ DOACs (apixaban, rivarelbaN) → Directly block Factor Xa or thrombin → no routine monitoring needed. Antidote for rivarelbaN/apixaban: andexanet alfa.
LPN ACTIONS: Monitor labs (aPTT for heparin, INR for warfarin). Monitor for bleeding every shift. Use soft toothbrush, electric razor. Avoid IM injections. Apply pressure to venipuncture sites × 5 minutes. REPORT any signs of bleeding. Teach: consistent Vitamin K intake with warfarin (do NOT eliminate green vegetables, just keep intake CONSISTENT). Teach: carry ID identifying anticoagulant use. REPORT INR > 3.0 or aPTT > 2.5× control.
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Quiz 5B: Advanced Management (11 Questions)
Score 80% to unlock the Final Exam!
Question 1 of 11
A synchronous (demand) pacemaker senses the client's rhythm and paces only if:
A. The heart rate is too fast
B. The client's intrinsic rate falls below the set pacemaker rate
C. The blood pressure is elevated
D. The client is sleeping
A demand pacemaker senses the heart's own rhythm and only fires when the rate drops below the programmed rate. This is the most commonly used pacemaker type. It acts as a safety net for bradycardia.
Question 2 of 11
A pacemaker spike before a QRS complex indicates that the:
A. Atrium is being paced
B. Ventricle is being paced
C. Pacemaker has failed
D. Battery needs replacement
A spike before a QRS = ventricle is being paced. A spike before a P wave = atrium is being paced. A spike followed by the appropriate waveform is called capture, meaning the pacemaker is successfully stimulating the heart.
Question 3 of 11
The most common complication in the first several hours after pacemaker insertion is:
A. Battery failure
B. Pacing electrode dislodgement
C. Infection
D. Skin rash
Pacing electrode dislodgement is the most common early complication. The nurse helps prevent this by LIMITING the client's activities, especially arm movement on the operative side. This is why activity restriction is so important post-insertion!
Question 4 of 11
An AICD (Automatic Implantable Cardioverter Defibrillator) monitors and terminates episodes of:
A. Sinus bradycardia only
B. VT and VF
C. Atrial flutter only
D. Normal sinus rhythm
An AICD monitors cardiac rhythm and detects and terminates VT and VF by delivering 25-30 joules up to 4 times. It is used for clients with episodes of spontaneous sustained VT or VF.
Question 5 of 11
A client with a permanent pacemaker should be taught to avoid:
A. Taking their pulse daily
B. Contact sports and electromagnetic fields directly over the device
C. Wearing loose-fitting clothing
D. Informing providers about the pacemaker
Avoid contact sports (trauma to generator and leads) and electromagnetic fields over the device (can inactivate it). Cell phones should be used on the opposite side. Clients SHOULD take pulse daily, wear loose clothing, and inform all providers.
Question 6 of 11
Biventricular pacing is used for:
A. Mild anxiety
B. Moderate to severe heart failure to improve cardiac output
C. Routine health screening
D. Hypertension only
Biventricular pacing paces BOTH ventricles, allowing synchronized depolarization. This is used for moderate to severe heart failure to improve cardiac output by ensuring both ventricles contract together.
Question 7 of 11
An LPN caring for a client immediately after temporary pacemaker insertion should prioritize:
A. Encouraging vigorous arm exercises
B. Limiting client movement and monitoring the insertion site
C. Removing the pacemaker for cleaning
D. Encouraging the client to shower immediately
Restrict client movement to prevent lead wire displacement, the most common early complication. Monitor the insertion site, vital signs, and cardiac rhythm continuously. Keep dressings dry.
Question 8 of 11
During transcutaneous pacing, the nurse should NOT take pulse or blood pressure on which side?
A. The right side
B. The left side
C. Either side is fine
D. Neither side should be used
Do not take pulse or BP on the LEFT side during transcutaneous pacing because muscle twitching and electrical current will give inaccurate results. The posterior electrode is placed behind the heart (between spine and left scapula) and the anterior over the heart.
Question 9 of 11
A client with an AICD should be taught that during shock discharge, they may feel:
A. Nothing at all
B. Faint or short of breath
C. Intense burning that lasts for hours
D. Numbness in both legs
During shock discharge, the client may feel faint or short of breath. They should sit or lie down if they feel a shock and notify the PHCP. Teach client to maintain a log of date, time, activity, and symptoms around each shock event.
Question 10 of 11
To reduce the risk of microshock from temporary pacemaker wires, the nurse should:
A. Handle wires with bare hands
B. Wear gloves when handling exposed wires and insulate unused wire ends
C. Leave wires exposed for easy access
D. Use only two-pronged plugs
Wear gloves when handling exposed wires, insulate exposed portions with rubber material (rubber glove fingers), use only inspected equipment with three-pronged plugs, and keep dressings dry. Even tiny amounts of current can cause fatal dysrhythmias when conducted directly to the heart!
Question 11 of 11
The permanent pacemaker lithium battery has an average life span of approximately:
A. 1 year
B. 10 years
C. 6 months
D. 30 years
Lithium battery life span is about 10 years. Nuclear-powered pacemakers last 20 years or longer. Pacemaker function can be checked in the PHCP office or from home using telephone transmitter devices.
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Final Exam: Comprehensive Review (20 Questions)
Covering ALL sections! Score 80% to complete the tutorial!
Q1
A client on digoxin reports seeing yellow-green halos around lights, nausea, and loss of appetite. The apical pulse is 52. The LPN should:
A. Give the medication and continue monitoring
B. Hold the medication and notify the PHCP immediately
C. Double the dose to help the client feel better
D. Administer IV potassium independently
These are classic signs of digoxin toxicity: GI symptoms (nausea, anorexia), visual disturbances (yellow-green halos), and bradycardia (HR 52, below 60). HOLD the drug and notify PHCP immediately. This is the most tested digoxin question on NCLEX!
Q2
The LPN observes V-Fib on a client's cardiac monitor. The FIRST action is to:
A. Check blood pressure
B. Call for help and begin CPR immediately
C. Administer oral medications
D. Reposition the client on their side
V-Fib = cardiac arrest = IMMEDIATE action needed! Call for help and begin CPR. Defibrillation is needed ASAP. Every minute without treatment reduces survival by 7 to 10 percent.
Q3
At the cell factory level, which organelle produces the ATP energy that powers all ion channels and contraction in the cardiomyocyte?
A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondria
C. Ribosomes
D. Golgi apparatus
Mitochondria are the power plants of the cell factory. They produce ATP, the energy currency needed for ion channel function, contraction, and all cellular processes. Heart cells have MORE mitochondria than most cells because the heart never rests!
Q4
A client taking a beta blocker reports dizziness when standing up. This is most likely caused by:
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Orthostatic hypotension
C. Allergic reaction
D. Dehydration unrelated to the medication
Beta blockers cause orthostatic hypotension (a drop in BP when standing). Teach the client to change positions SLOWLY. Report dizziness or fainting to the PHCP.
Q5
The LAD coronary artery supplies blood to the anterior wall of the left ventricle. A blockage here would most likely cause:
A. An anterior wall myocardial infarction
B. Only a headache
C. Pneumonia
D. Kidney failure only
The LAD supplies the anterior wall of the left ventricle. Blockage causes an anterior wall MI affecting the main pumping chamber. The LAD is called the Widow Maker!
Q6
The conduction pathway in correct order is:
A. AV node, SA node, Purkinje, Bundle of His
B. SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, Bundle Branches, Purkinje Fibers
C. Purkinje, Bundle of His, AV node, SA node
D. SA node, Purkinje, AV node, Bundle Branches
SA node (60-100 bpm) to AV node (40-60 bpm backup) to Bundle of His to Right and Left Bundle Branches to Purkinje Fibers (20-40 bpm last resort).
Q7
A client with A-Fib is at risk for stroke because:
A. The ventricles are too strong
B. Blood pools in the quivering atria and can form clots that travel to the brain
C. The SA node is too fast
D. Blood pressure is always too low
In A-Fib, the atria quiver rather than contract effectively. Blood pools and stagnates, forming thrombi. These clots can travel to the brain (stroke!) or lungs (PE).
Q8
Calcium channel blockers work at the cell factory level by:
A. Opening more calcium gates to increase contraction
B. Blocking calcium entry through L-type channels, slowing conduction and reducing contraction
C. Increasing sodium entry to speed depolarization
D. Releasing more potassium from the cell
CCBs block L-type calcium channels. Less calcium entering means less contraction force (negative inotrope) and slower conduction through SA and AV nodes. This reduces heart rate and workload.
Q9
Before defibrillation, the nurse must ensure:
A. The client is eating
B. Oxygen is stopped and no one is touching the client or bed
C. The blood pressure cuff is inflated
D. The client gives verbal consent
STOP oxygen (fire hazard!) and ensure NO ONE is touching the bed or client. Check three times before shocking. Defibrillation is an emergency procedure; consent is implied in cardiac arrest situations.
Q10
Hyperkalemia on ECG shows:
A. Flat T waves and U waves
B. Tall, peaked T waves and widened QRS complex
C. Normal sinus rhythm
D. No visible changes
Hyperkalemia causes tall, peaked (tent-shaped) T waves and widened QRS complex. In contrast, hypokalemia causes flat T waves, prominent U waves, and ST depression. Know your electrolyte ECG changes for NCLEX!
Q11
The T wave on an ECG represents:
A. Atrial depolarization
B. Ventricular depolarization
C. Ventricular repolarization (the vulnerable period)
D. Atrial repolarization only
The T wave = ventricular repolarization = the VULNERABLE PERIOD. This is why cardioversion must be synchronized to the R wave to AVOID the T wave. A PVC on the T wave (R-on-T) can trigger V-Fib!
Q12
A demand pacemaker fires only when:
A. The heart rate is above 100 bpm
B. The intrinsic heart rate falls below the set pacemaker rate
C. The client requests it
D. Blood pressure drops below 90 systolic
A demand (synchronous) pacemaker senses the heart rhythm and fires ONLY when the rate drops below the programmed rate. It is the most commonly used type and acts as a safety net for bradycardia.
Q13
The myocardium is the:
A. Inner lining of the heart
B. Thick muscular middle layer responsible for contraction
C. Outer protective layer
D. Fluid-filled sac surrounding the heart
The myocardium is the thick, muscular middle layer of the heart wall. It is the FACTORY FLOOR where contraction happens. The endocardium is the inner lining, the epicardium is the outer layer, and the pericardium is the protective sac.
Q14
Which valve prevents backflow from the aorta into the left ventricle?
A. Tricuspid valve
B. Mitral valve
C. Pulmonic valve
D. Aortic valve
The aortic valve prevents backflow from the aorta into the left ventricle. Remember: Try Pulling My Aorta = Tricuspid, Pulmonic, Mitral, Aortic (the four heart valves in order of blood flow).
Q15
Amiodarone clients need eye exams every 6 to 12 months because the drug can cause:
A. Improved vision
B. Corneal microdeposits
C. Cataracts that resolve spontaneously
D. No ocular effects
Amiodarone can cause corneal microdeposits, requiring regular eye exams. It also causes photosensitivity (wear dark glasses and protective clothing), potential pulmonary complications, and bluish skin discoloration with long-term use.
Q16
CPR compression rate for adults is:
A. 60-80 per minute
B. 100-120 per minute at 2 inches deep
C. 140-160 per minute
D. 40-60 per minute
CPR compressions: 100-120 per minute at a depth of 2 inches (5 cm). Follow CAB sequence: Compressions, Airway, Breathing. Ratio is 30 compressions to 2 ventilations.
Q17
An LPN collects data on a client with a new permanent pacemaker. Which finding should be reported to the RN IMMEDIATELY?
A. Mild incisional tenderness
B. Dizziness, syncope, and heart rate below the programmed pacemaker rate
C. Ability to take own pulse
D. Normal appetite
Dizziness, syncope, and a heart rate BELOW the programmed rate indicate pacemaker MALFUNCTION (failure to capture or sense). This is an emergency! Report immediately. LPNs COLLECT DATA and REPORT findings to the RN or PHCP.
Q18
The AV node delays the impulse for approximately 0.1 seconds. At the cell factory level, this delay is important because:
A. It has no purpose
B. It allows the atria to finish contracting and emptying blood into the ventricles before the ventricles contract
C. It speeds up the heart rate
D. It prevents all electrical activity
The AV node delay gives the atria time to finish emptying blood into the ventricles (atrial kick). Without this delay, the atria and ventricles would contract simultaneously, reducing cardiac output by about 25 percent!
Q19
Which statement by the client on a beta blocker indicates the need for FURTHER teaching?
A. I will take my pulse before taking this medication
B. I will stop taking this medication right away if I feel better
C. I will change positions slowly to prevent dizziness
D. I will avoid OTC cold medications
NEVER stop beta blockers abruptly! This can cause dangerous rebound effects: hypertension, tachycardia, or anginal attack. Always taper gradually under PHCP guidance. The statement about stopping right away indicates the need for FURTHER teaching.
Q20
Cardioversion differs from defibrillation because cardioversion is:
A. Used only for asystole
B. Synchronized to the R wave and uses lower energy
C. Never used in hospitals
D. The same as defibrillation
Cardioversion is SYNCHRONIZED to the R wave (avoids the T wave) and uses LOWER energy. Defibrillation is asynchronous (no sync needed because there is no organized rhythm) and uses higher energy. Cardioversion is for stable tachycardias; defibrillation is for V-Fib and Pulseless V-Tach.